ati capstone adult medical surgical assessment 1 ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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