ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take my medication with orange juice.
- B. Having a bedtime snack will prevent heartburn.
- C. I will lie down after meals.
- D. I will limit activities that require bending at the waist.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with GERD should avoid activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as bending at the waist, as this can lead to reflux. Choice A is incorrect because medications for GERD are usually taken with water, not citrus juices. Choice B is incorrect as having a bedtime snack can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because lying down after meals can also exacerbate reflux due to the effects of gravity.
2. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Distended, board-like abdomen
- B. WBC count of 15,000/mm3
- C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney's point
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?
- A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
- B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
- C. BUN 8 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who was newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the teaching?
- A. I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.
- B. The amount of protein in my blood is high.
- C. I might have some pain and gas in my stomach from this condition.
- D. I will use a soft bristle toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nephrotic syndrome leads to edema, especially of the face and dependent areas, due to the loss of protein in the urine. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as using a soft bristle toothbrush is not directly related to the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome.
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