ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
- B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
- C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
- D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hypertension.' Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium retention and potassium loss, leading to increased blood pressure. Weight loss (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, hyperglycemia is a common concern. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is also unlikely with prednisone use; instead, hypokalemia is a potential electrolyte imbalance.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.
4. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
- B. Place a pillow under the client's head during a seizure
- C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
- D. Position the client on their side during a seizure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has a seizure disorder is to position the client on their side during a seizure. This helps to prevent aspiration and ensures a patent airway. Keeping a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head during a seizure (Choice B) is also not advised as it can obstruct the airway. Administering diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures (Choice C) is not typically done at home without healthcare provider direction.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 DM about hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Exercise reduces the risk for hypoglycemia.
- B. I can skip my insulin when I don't eat.
- C. I can drink 4 oz of soda if my blood sugar is low.
- D. Diabetic pills don't cause hypoglycemia; only insulin does.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client can correct any development of hypoglycemia with a quick intake of glucose. The client should have 15 g carbohydrates on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes, like 4 oz of regular soda.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99