ati comprehensive exit exam 2023 with ngn quizlet ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.

2. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the unit due to a staffing shortage. Which of the following clients should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube can be delegated to an LPN as this involves routine postoperative care. Option A involves administering packed RBCs which requires assessment and monitoring for potential adverse reactions, not suitable for delegation to an LPN. Option B requires neurological assessment and close monitoring due to the concussion, which is beyond the scope of an LPN. Option D involves a client with a recent fracture and shortness of breath, which requires urgent assessment and intervention beyond the LPN's scope of practice.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a craniotomy. Which of the following findings indicates the client is developing diabetes insipidus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria is the correct finding indicating the client is developing diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of diluted urine due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone. This results in increased urine output (polyuria) despite adequate fluid intake. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus but can be seen in other conditions. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperglycemia (choice D) are also not typical findings of diabetes insipidus.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Stool softeners help prevent straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding in individuals with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is more about reducing the risk of infection rather than managing thrombocytopenia.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

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