ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.
2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lithium, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day.
- B. Maintain a consistent sodium intake.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime.
- D. Expect to have frequent headaches.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining a consistent sodium intake is crucial when taking Lithium to help regulate lithium levels in the body and prevent toxicity. Sodium levels can impact the effectiveness and safety of Lithium therapy. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day (Choice A) is not appropriate and could lead to dehydration. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice C) may vary depending on the individual's schedule but is not a critical instruction. Expecting to have frequent headaches (Choice D) is not a common side effect of Lithium.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV to a client. Available is morphine 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.4 mL
- C. 0.6 mL
- D. 0.8 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 4 mg from a solution of 10 mg/mL, the healthcare professional should administer 0.4 mL. The calculation is done by dividing the desired dose (4 mg) by the concentration of the solution (10 mg/mL), which equals 0.4 mL. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it is half of the correct calculation. Choice C (0.6 mL) is incorrect because it is 50% more than the correct calculation. Choice D (0.8 mL) is incorrect because it exceeds the correct calculation.
4. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.
5. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime to reduce drowsiness.
- C. Take this medication in the morning to reduce insomnia.
- D. Avoid sudden changes in position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.
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