ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client has been prescribed Nitroglycerin patches for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- B. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
- C. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
- D. Cut the patch in half if your blood pressure is well controlled.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.' Nitroglycerin patches should be removed for 12 hours each day to prevent the development of tolerance. This nitrate-free interval ensures the medication remains effective in managing angina. Choice A is incorrect because applying the patch to a different site each time is not necessary; it is more important to ensure a nitrate-free interval. Choice C is incorrect because while consistency in timing is good for medication adherence, the crucial aspect for Nitroglycerin patches is the nitrate-free interval. Choice D is incorrect because cutting the patch in half based on blood pressure control is not a recommended practice and could alter the medication's efficacy.
2. A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect to take this medication long-term.
- B. Increase fluid intake during therapy.
- C. Avoid sexual contact while on this medication.
- D. Consult your healthcare provider if you experience nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acyclovir is usually prescribed for short-term use, there is no need to avoid sexual contact while on the medication, and nausea is not a common side effect that necessitates immediate consultation with a healthcare provider.
3. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. If the medication causes an upset stomach, take an antacid at the same time.
- B. Increase your daily fluid intake while taking this medication.
- C. This medication can cause photophobia, so avoid direct sunlight exposure.
- D. You should report any tendon discomfort you experience while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.
4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
- B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
- C. Expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded.
- D. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Verapamil is to increase their intake of high-fiber foods. Verapamil can cause constipation as a side effect, and increasing fiber intake can help prevent constipation. High-fiber foods promote bowel regularity and can counteract the constipating effects of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Verapamil with grapefruit juice can lead to adverse reactions, drowsiness or lightheadedness is not a typical side effect of Verapamil, and there is no need to avoid dairy products specifically while taking this medication.
5. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?
- A. Over 1,000 mg
- B. 750 mg
- C. Over 1,500 mg
- D. 150 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.
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