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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.

2. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.

3. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.

5. A client is taking naproxen following an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client requires further discussion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client stating that they have been taking an antacid to help with indigestion while on naproxen requires further discussion. This statement suggests potential gastrointestinal distress or interactions between the medications. Antacids can affect the absorption of naproxen or lead to other complications. Therefore, the nurse should address this statement with the client to ensure safe and effective medication management. Choices A, C, and D do not raise immediate concerns related to the client's medication regimen and can be considered positive health behaviors or side effects of treatment that do not require immediate intervention.

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