ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
- B. Rotate the application site daily.
- C. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
- D. Cut the patch in half if needed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches is to rotate the application site daily. This is important to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal absorption of the medication. Applying the patch at the same time every day (Choice A) is not necessary for nitroglycerin patches. Removing the patch for 12 hours each day (Choice C) would disrupt the continuous delivery of medication. Cutting the patch in half (Choice D) can alter the dose and is not recommended unless directed by a healthcare provider.
2. What is the correct definition of drug absorption?
- A. Movement of a drug from the site of administration to various tissues of the body
- B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs
- C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter
- D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct definition of drug absorption is the movement of a drug from the site of administration into various tissues of the body. It is the process by which a drug is taken up and enters the systemic circulation. Choice B describes the pharmacokinetics of drugs, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, but it is not a specific definition of drug absorption. Choice C is unrelated to drug absorption, as it refers to over-the-counter drugs. Choice D is too vague and does not specifically address the process of drug absorption.
3. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?
- A. Spironolactone
- B. Furosemide
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Bumetanide
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.
4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?
- A. Swelling of the ankles.
- B. Increased urination.
- C. Persistent cough.
- D. Dark-colored urine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.
5. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?
- A. Decreased fever
- B. Decreased sense of anxiety
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased seizure activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.
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