ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A woman with severe visual and auditory deficits is able to identify individuals by running her fingers lightly over her face. Which source is most likely to provide the input that allows for the woman's unique ability?
- A. Special somatic afferent fibers
- B. General somatic afferents
- C. Special visceral afferent cells
- D. General visceral afferent neurons
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, special visceral afferent cells. These cells are responsible for functions like taste and smell. In individuals with severe visual and auditory deficits, their other sensory abilities, such as touch, can be heightened. Special somatic afferent fibers (choice A) are involved in sensations like touch and vibration from the skin and muscles, but they are not specific to the face. General somatic afferents (choice B) transmit sensory information from the skin, muscles, and joints, but they are not specialized for the unique ability described. General visceral afferent neurons (choice D) are responsible for transmitting sensory information from internal organs, not relevant to the woman's ability to identify individuals through touch on her face.
2. A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:
- A. Sympathetic nerves.
- B. Parasympathetic nerves.
- C. Somatic nerves.
- D. Spinal reflexes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.
3. A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?
- A. Increased libido
- B. Decreased muscle mass
- C. Breast tenderness
- D. Increased aggression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.
4. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?
- A. CD4 helper T cells
- B. CD8 helper T cells
- C. CDC cells
- D. CDC10 cells
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.
5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
- A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
- B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
- C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
- D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.
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