Nursing Elites

1. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:

• A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
• B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
• C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
• D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.

2. While in an induced coma for 3 weeks, a badly burned firefighter awakens and thanks his son for singing Happy Birthday to him a week earlier. Which part of the brain is responsible for allowing him to hear and comprehend while comatose?

• A. Cerebellum
• B. Thalamus
• C. Temporal lobe
• D. Occipital lobe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information, allowing the patient to hear and comprehend while in a coma. The cerebellum is primarily associated with coordination and balance, not auditory processing. The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information but is not specifically responsible for auditory processing. The occipital lobe is mainly involved in processing visual information, not auditory functions.

3. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is important for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not need to be taken with food. Choice B is irrelevant as sun exposure is not a concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to adverse effects.

4. In a patient with renal failure secondary to an overdose of a nephrotoxic drug, which assessment findings would the nurse recognize as being most suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis?

• A. Frequent infections and low neutrophil levels
• B. Fatigue and increased heart rate
• C. Agitation and changes in cognition
• D. Increased blood pressure and peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Impaired erythropoiesis refers to a decreased production of red blood cells. This can lead to anemia, resulting in symptoms like fatigue and increased heart rate (Choice B). However, the question specifically asks about assessment findings suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. In this context, frequent infections and low neutrophil levels (Choice A) are more directly related to impaired erythropoiesis due to the impact of anemia on the immune system. Frequent infections are common in anemia due to a compromised immune response, and low neutrophil levels can be seen in conditions of impaired erythropoiesis. Agitation and changes in cognition (Choice C) are more indicative of neurological issues, while increased blood pressure and peripheral edema (Choice D) are commonly associated with renal failure but not specifically related to impaired erythropoiesis.

5. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis.
• B. hypercortisolism.
• C. ACTH stimulation.
• D. thyroid crisis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: adrenal crisis. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, resulting in adrenal crisis. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the adrenal glands' ability to produce cortisol. Abrupt withdrawal can cause a sudden drop in cortisol levels, leading to adrenal crisis with symptoms like fatigue, weakness, abdominal pain, and potentially life-threatening low blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercortisolism refers to excess cortisol levels, ACTH stimulation would not result from prednisone withdrawal, and thyroid crisis is not directly related to corticosteroid discontinuation.

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