Free ATI Medical Surgical practice for ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A (ATI RN). Answer 50 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, ex
A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.
The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Absent breath sounds may indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication post lung biopsy. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
A client developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat globules enter the bloodstream and can lead to various complications, including a decrease in serum calcium levels. This occurs due to the formation of fat emboli in the vessels, which can interfere with calcium metabolism. Therefore, a decreased serum calcium level is an expected laboratory finding in a client with fat embolism syndrome.
A client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and has an ideal weight of 60 kg should have the tidal volume set at which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tidal volume is the amount of air delivered with each breath during mechanical ventilation. A common formula used to calculate tidal volume is 6-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight. For a client with an ideal weight of 60 kg, the expected tidal volume would be 60 kg x 6-8 mL/kg = 360-480 mL. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is 480 mL (Option B), which falls within the expected range based on the client's weight.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer albuterol syrup 1.6 mg PO tid. Available is albuterol 2 mg/5mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the mL of albuterol syrup needed per dose, first, determine how many milligrams are in the prescribed dose: 1.6 mg. Next, set up a proportion to find the equivalent mL for 1.6 mg using the given concentration of 2 mg/5mL. The calculation is: (1.6 mg x 5 mL) / 2 mg = 4 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL to administer per dose.
A client who is intubated and has an intra-aortic balloon pump is restless and agitated. What action should the nurse perform first for comfort?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Allowing the family to remain at the bedside can help calm the client with familiar voices and presence, potentially reducing restlessness and agitation. Introducing a fan may not be the priority as it can spread germs through air movement. Keeping the television on all the time may not promote rest and recovery. Speaking loudly is not advisable as it may further agitate the client. Therefore, the initial action of allowing family members to stay is most likely to provide comfort and reassurance to the client.
A client who is interested in smoking cessation receives teaching from a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this teaching? (Select ONE that does not apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When teaching a client interested in smoking cessation, the nurse should include advice to find an activity that keeps hands busy to help distract from smoking urges, keep healthy snacks on hand to manage oral cravings, and drink at least 8 glasses of water daily to aid in flushing out toxins. Making a list of reasons for quitting smoking is also beneficial to reinforce motivation. It is important to avoid punitive measures or punishments for relapses as this can negatively impact the client's progress.
A nursing student is providing tracheostomy care. What action by the student requires intervention by the instructor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When providing tracheostomy care, it is important to ensure the client's safety and prevent pressure ulcers. When securing ties that require knotting, the knot should be placed at the side of the client's neck, not at the back. Tying a square knot at the back of the neck could lead to discomfort, pressure ulcers, or accidental tightening. Holding the device securely, suctioning the client as needed, and using appropriate cleansing solutions are all essential components of tracheostomy care.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD tells the nurse, 'I can feel the congestion in my lungs, and I certainly cough a lot, but I can't seem to bring anything up.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take to help this client with tenacious bronchial secretions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily helps to thin bronchial secretions, making them easier to expectorate. This can assist the client in coughing up the tenacious secretions. Maintaining a semi-Fowler's position can aid in improving lung expansion but may not directly address the issue of clearing the secretions. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target the removal of bronchial secretions. Selecting a low-salt diet is important for overall health, but it does not directly address the client's immediate concern of clearing the bronchial secretions.
A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.
A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.
A client had an inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the client's cardiac rhythm as shown below. What action by the nurse is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ECG strip shows sinus bradycardia, which is common in clients with an inferior wall MI. This rhythm can lead to decreased perfusion due to bradycardia and blocks. The most crucial initial action for the nurse is to assess the client's hemodynamic status, including blood pressure and level of consciousness. This assessment will help determine the immediate needs of the client. Calling the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team, obtaining a permit for a pacemaker insertion, or preparing to administer antidysrhythmic medication may be necessary based on the assessment findings, but the priority is to evaluate the client's current condition first.
While providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and is receiving opioid medications to manage discomfort, which of the following desired effects of medications should the nurse identify as most important for the client's recovery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the postoperative period following CABG surgery, deep breathing exercises are essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Opioid medications can depress the respiratory system, making it crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of deep breathing to maintain optimal lung function. While managing pain and anxiety are important, facilitating deep breathing takes precedence in this situation to promote effective recovery and prevent respiratory complications.
How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.
A healthcare professional assesses a client's respiratory status. Which information is of highest priority for the healthcare professional to obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Obtaining information about a client's occupation and hobbies is crucial when assessing respiratory status as many respiratory problems can result from chronic exposure to inhalation irritants related to these activities. Understanding the client's potential exposure can help the healthcare professional identify risk factors and provide appropriate interventions to promote respiratory health.
A healthcare professional is auscultating the lungs of a client who has pleurisy. Which of the following adventitious breath sounds should the professional expect to hear?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When auscultating the lungs of a client with pleurisy, the healthcare professional should expect to hear loud, scratchy sounds. These sounds are characteristic of pleurisy, which is an inflammation of the pleura, causing a rough, grating sound during breathing.
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.
A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.
A client with a mediastinal chest tube is being assessed by a nurse. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (SATA)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Immediate intervention is necessary when a client with a mediastinal chest tube exhibits tracheal deviation since it may indicate a tension pneumothorax. This condition requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications. While the production of pink sputum and pain at the insertion site should be monitored and reported, they do not typically require immediate intervention. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues related to the chest tube but is not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.
A client is prescribed prednisone for asthma management. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because prednisone, a corticosteroid, should not be abruptly stopped. It must be tapered off gradually to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate proper understanding of the medication's use and side effects, emphasizing the importance of daily intake, infection prevention, and taking it with food to avoid stomach upset.
A client with asthma presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (SATA)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Suprasternal retraction during inhalation suggests the client is using accessory muscles due to difficulty in moving air into the respiratory passages caused by airway narrowing. The presence of bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation further support airway narrowing. In this situation, immediate intervention is necessary to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to support oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler may be warranted, the priority in this scenario is ensuring adequate oxygenation to address the respiratory distress.
During an assessment in the emergency department, an older adult client with community-acquired pneumonia is found to be confused. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Confusion is a common finding in older adult clients with pneumonia, often indicating hypoxia. Hypertension, unequal pupils, and tympany upon chest percussion are not typically associated with community-acquired pneumonia in older adults.
During an acute asthma attack, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client experiencing an acute asthma attack, decreased breath sounds suggest severe airway obstruction or respiratory fatigue, indicating a worsening condition. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and a productive cough are common manifestations during an asthma attack as the airways constrict, leading to turbulent airflow causing wheezing, increased effort to breathe resulting in a higher respiratory rate, and mucus production causing a productive cough. However, decreased breath sounds signify a critical situation requiring immediate intervention.
While caring for a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation, which intervention should the nurse NOT implement to prevent complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice and can increase the risk of complications, such as accidental extubation or damage to the airway. The endotracheal tube should remain in the initial correct position to ensure proper ventilation and prevent harm to the client. Elevating the head of the bed, verifying ventilator settings, and administering pantoprazole as prescribed are all appropriate interventions to prevent complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse about ways to facilitate eating. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Option B, 'I will take my bronchodilators after meals,' indicates a need for further teaching. Bronchodilators should be taken before meals to help open the airways and make breathing easier before eating. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the timing for optimal bronchodilator effectiveness. Options A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for facilitating eating for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.
A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.
A client is going to be admitted for a scheduled surgical procedure. Which action does the nurse explain is the most important thing the client can do to protect against errors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action a client can take to protect against errors is to bring a list of all medications and their purposes. This helps ensure that the healthcare team has accurate information about the client's medications, reducing the risk of medication errors, which are the most common type of healthcare mistake. Knowing the medications and their purposes can also aid in preventing drug interactions and adverse effects during the surgical procedure.
A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.
A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.
A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.
A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
While assessing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the nurse should expect lethargy as a common finding. Tuberculosis can cause fatigue and weakness due to the body's efforts to fight the infection. High-grade fever is another common symptom of tuberculosis, not weight gain or dry cough. Weight loss is more typical in tuberculosis due to decreased appetite and systemic effects of the infection. A persistent productive cough with sputum is more characteristic of tuberculosis rather than a dry cough.
When caring for a client with acute pancreatitis, what intervention is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering pain medication as needed is the most appropriate intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis. Pain management is crucial as pancreatitis can cause severe and debilitating pain. Providing pain relief is essential to improve the client's comfort and well-being.
A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.
During a home visit to an older client living alone post-coronary artery bypass graft, what finding prompts the nurse to consider additional referrals?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of expired food in the refrigerator is concerning as it raises safety issues for the client and indicates potential financial constraints preventing them from buying fresh food. The nurse should consider referring the client to services like Meals on Wheels or other home-based food programs to address this issue and ensure the client's nutritional needs are met.
A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute respiratory failure, the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Symptoms of hypoxia include severe dyspnea (A), decreased level of consciousness (C), and headache (D) due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Nausea (B) is not a typical manifestation of acute respiratory failure and is not directly related to the lack of oxygen in the body. Therefore, the nurse should not monitor the client for nausea as a direct consequence of ARF.
A student is practicing suctioning a tracheostomy in the skills laboratory. What action by the student demonstrates that more teaching is needed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for suctioning a tracheostomy involves applying suction while withdrawing the catheter to avoid damaging the tracheal mucosa. Therefore, the student applying suction while inserting the catheter indicates a need for further teaching. Preoxygenating the client, suctioning up to three times if necessary, and limiting suctioning to 10 to 15 seconds each time are all appropriate actions in tracheostomy suctioning.
During an admission assessment of a client with COPD and emphysema complaining of a frequent productive cough and shortness of breath, what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
COPD and emphysema are chronic respiratory conditions that can lead to changes in the shape of the chest. In clients with COPD, the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often increases, giving a barrel chest appearance. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is a common physical finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. The other options are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Respiratory alkalosis is not a common finding in these clients. An oxygen saturation level of 96% is within the normal range and does not specifically relate to COPD. Petechiae on the chest are not typically associated with COPD or emphysema.
While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.
A client with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant appears depressed and states, 'I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable.' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is expressing a fear of negative outcomes related to the transplant. By offering information about advance directives, the nurse allows the client to discuss concerns and preferences for end-of-life care. This response shows empathy, acknowledges the client's autonomy, and addresses the client's fears while providing support and information.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario of a pulmonary embolism, the priority medication to administer is Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots and the growth of existing ones, which is crucial in managing pulmonary embolism. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used for inflammation, and Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used for various purposes such as treating bradycardia.
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