Free Perfusion practice for ATI Perfusion Questions (ATI RN). Answer 29 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nursin
A patient is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Washing hands and avoiding contact with individuals who are ill are crucial to reduce this risk. Choice A is incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes is not a priority after a splenectomy. Choice B is incorrect as while bleeding is a concern, it is more immediate post-operatively. Choice C is incorrect as iron supplements do not specifically relate to the risk of infection post-splenectomy.
A patient is considering options to manage his/her coronary artery disease. The nurse explains a coronary artery bypass graft procedure will:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A coronary artery bypass graft procedure involves connecting grafts to the aorta to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. This procedure does not cure coronary artery disease but helps improve blood supply to the heart. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bypass graft procedure does not cure the underlying disease, replace heart valves, or involve the placement of a pacemaker.
Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.
Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Absolute neutrophil count. Filgrastim (Neupogen) works by stimulating the production and function of neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the Absolute neutrophil count is crucial to assess the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophil levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because platelet count, reticulocyte count, and total lymphocyte count do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophils, which are essential in fighting infections during chemotherapy.
Which task for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because administering subcutaneous medications falls within the education and scope of practice of an LPN/LVN. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, teaching the patient, and developing a discharge plan are tasks that require an RN level of education and scope of practice. LPN/LVNs can assist in patient care, but tasks that involve assessment, teaching, and care planning are typically the responsibility of an RN.
The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before a transfusion as their education includes measurement of vital signs. UAP would then report the vital signs to the registered nurse (RN). Option A is typically a nursing responsibility to ensure patient safety and avoid errors in patient identification. Option C involves cross-checking important details and ensuring accuracy, which is usually performed by nursing staff to prevent errors. Option D requires monitoring for potential adverse reactions during the transfusion, which is a nursing responsibility due to the need for assessment and intervention in case of complications.
The nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds in a newly admitted patient. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Hemoglobin level.' Pallor of the skin and nail beds is a sign of anemia, which is characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Anemia is a condition where there is a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. Checking the hemoglobin level would help confirm the presence and severity of anemia, guiding further diagnostic and treatment interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because platelet count, neutrophil count, and white blood cell count are not typically associated with the pallor of the skin and nail beds, which are more indicative of an underlying anemic condition.
The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to include in the plan of care for a thrombocytopenic patient is to avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can pose a risk of bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. Encouraging increased oral fluids (choice B) is beneficial for hydration but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia. Checking temperature every 4 hours (choice C) is important for monitoring infection but does not specifically address the risk of bleeding. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods (choice D) is more related to addressing anemia, not the primary concern of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.
A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: cobalamin (vitamin B12). Methotrexate can lead to a deficiency in cobalamin, resulting in megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, increasing the oral intake of cobalamin is essential to address this deficiency. Choice A, iron, is incorrect because megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate is not typically due to iron deficiency. Choice B, folic acid, is also incorrect as methotrexate does not directly cause folic acid deficiency. Choice D, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), is incorrect as it is not directly related to megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate; instead, cobalamin is the key vitamin that needs attention.
A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about recommended dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "Cornmeal muffin and orange juice." Cornmeal muffin is a good source of iron, which is beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Orange juice is high in vitamin C, which aids in iron absorption. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically address the need for iron-rich foods, making them less suitable for someone with iron-deficiency anemia. Omelet and whole wheat toast (Choice A) may provide some iron but are not as focused on addressing the specific deficiency. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese (Choice B) and strawberry and banana fruit plate (Choice C) are more general fruit choices and do not emphasize iron-rich options.
A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Elevated reticulocyte count. Hemorrhage leads to the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation as a compensatory mechanism to replenish lost red blood cells. This response helps in restoring the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Choices A and B, hematocrit of 46% and hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL, may not reflect the immediate response to hemorrhage within 14 hours. Choice D, decreased white blood cell (WBC) count, is not directly related to the body's response to hemorrhage.
A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "Do you have any history of lung disease?" The elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels suggest polycythemia, which can be seen in conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Option A is less relevant as weight loss is not typically associated with these blood count findings. Option C is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than a respiratory issue. Option D focuses on dietary factors, which are less likely to cause such significant elevations in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as seen in this case.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the cardiac unit recovering from a cardiac bypass graft procedure. The patient's spouse comes out to the hallway and expresses concern about the patient's confusion since surgery was 3 days ago. An appropriate response by the nurse would be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the correct answer because confusion can be a common occurrence after cardiac surgeries due to factors such as anesthesia, medication, and the stress of the procedure. By acknowledging the spouse's concern and explaining that confusion is a known potential outcome, the nurse provides reassurance and education. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the spouse's concern about the patient's confusion or provide appropriate information about the situation.
After a patient with pancytopenia undergoes a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest, which action would be important for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a bone marrow aspiration, it is important to have the patient lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes to decrease the risk of bleeding. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Applying a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site is important for wound care but does not specifically address post-procedural positioning. Using a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound is not necessary after a bone marrow aspiration.
Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.
A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's symptoms, back pain, and difficulty breathing after the transfusion indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction, a severe transfusion reaction. The priority action in this situation is to discontinue the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications. Infusing normal saline helps maintain the patient's intravascular volume and prevent renal damage. Administering oxygen or obtaining a urine specimen is not the most urgent action and could delay essential treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but should come after ensuring the patient's safety by stopping the blood transfusion.
An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In severe hemolytic anemia, the priority nursing intervention is to alternate periods of rest and activity. This approach helps to balance activity levels to prevent excessive fatigue while promoting mobility and preventing complications such as muscle weakness or deconditioning. Providing a diet high in vitamin K (choice A) is not directly related to managing hemolytic anemia. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury (choice C) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Placing the patient on protective isolation (choice D) is not indicated for hemolytic anemia, as it is not a contagious condition.
When providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis, what is important for the nurse to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. In sickle cell crisis, pain is the most common symptom and is usually managed with large doses of continuous opioids. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice A) is important, but limiting fluids may not be necessary. Encouraging ambulation (Choice C) is generally good but may not be the priority during a sickle cell crisis. Educating the patient about nutrition (Choice D) is important for overall health but may not be the immediate focus during a crisis.
A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with a febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped and antipyretics administered for the fever as ordered.
A patient who has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this scenario, the platelet count of 42,000/µL is not significantly low to warrant a platelet transfusion without active bleeding. Consulting with the healthcare provider is essential before giving the transfusion to ensure the appropriateness of the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the need for consulting before a platelet transfusion. Petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and may not necessarily contraindicate a platelet transfusion at this platelet count.
Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered.
An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.
A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.
A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with a febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped and antipyretics administered for the fever as ordered.
A patient who has immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this scenario, the platelet count of 42,000/µL is not significantly low to warrant a platelet transfusion without active bleeding. Consulting with the healthcare provider is essential before giving the transfusion to ensure the appropriateness of the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the need for consulting before a platelet transfusion. Petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and may not necessarily contraindicate a platelet transfusion at this platelet count.
Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered.
An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.
A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.
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