ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
- B. Severe nausea and vomiting
- C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
- D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.
2. What is the first medication to give to a patient with an allergic reaction causing wheezing?
- A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
- B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by bronchospasms in allergic reactions. Methylprednisolone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory properties and is typically given after bronchodilators. Cromolyn (Choice C) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for the prevention of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief. Aminophylline (Choice D) is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used nowadays due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity.
3. What are the expected signs of compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Fever, swelling, and redness
- C. Muscle cramps and weakness
- D. Redness and itching
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to inadequate blood supply. This results in severe pain that is unrelieved by rest or medication, pallor due to compromised blood flow, and pulselessness as a late sign of severe ischemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fever, swelling, and redness are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Muscle cramps and weakness may occur due to other conditions, but they are not primary indicators of compartment syndrome. Redness and itching are also not commonly associated with compartment syndrome.
4. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube system
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the correct intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This can help resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the entire chest tube system are not appropriate interventions in this scenario. Clamping the tube can lead to a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the chest tube system may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by simply tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications associated with the air leak.
5. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Limit potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.
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