ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.
2. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
- A. Pruritis (itching)
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Altered glucose metabolism
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.
3. The cells of a normal individual can replicate in a specified rate. If the rate of replication becomes uncontrollable, which of the following is lacking from the patient?
- A. Apoptosis
- B. Contact inhibition
- C. Stable cells
- D. Labile cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Contact inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that prevents cells from proliferating once they reach a certain density. Normally, when cells grow and touch each other (such as in a monolayer), they stop dividing, maintaining tissue integrity and structure. When contact inhibition is lacking, as in many cancerous cells, cells continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor formation. This loss of regulation is a hallmark of cancerous growth.
4. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a client who has had an abdominal perineal resection for a bowel tumor. Which assessment finding indicates that the colostomy is beginning to function?
- A. The passage of flatus
- B. Absent bowel sounds
- C. The client’s ability to tolerate food
- D. Bloody drainage from the colostomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The passage of flatus (gas) from the colostomy is an early sign that the bowel is beginning to function after surgery. This indicates that peristalsis, or the movement of the intestines, has resumed and that the digestive system is actively moving gas and eventually stool through the bowel and out of the colostomy. It’s a positive sign that the bowel is recovering from the surgery and starting to work as intended.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?
- A. Administering iron supplements
- B. Administering blood transfusions
- C. Providing a high-iron diet
- D. Administering erythropoietin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.
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