Free ATI RN Capstone practice for RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN (ATI RN). Answer 65 nursing exam-style questions with ratio
A patient recovering from a stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status. Patients recovering from a stroke with difficulty swallowing are at high risk for aspiration, which can lead to serious complications like aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, the priority is to keep the patient on NPO until a thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is completed. Choice A is incorrect as feeding the patient soft solids can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as providing ice chips may further compromise swallowing safety. Choice D is incorrect as starting the patient on a clear liquid diet can also increase the risk of aspiration in this scenario.
A nurse suspects a colleague of diverting narcotics. What is the nurse's first course of action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first course of action for a nurse suspecting a colleague of diverting narcotics is to report the suspicion to the nurse manager. Confronting the colleague directly may not be safe and could compromise the investigation. Ignoring the situation is not appropriate as it can pose risks to patient safety. Keeping a record of the colleague's actions is not the primary action to take when drug diversion is suspected; reporting to the nurse manager is crucial for proper investigation and ensuring patient safety.
A patient may need restraints. Which task can the nurse delegate to a nursing assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is applying the restraint (Choice D). Nursing assistive personnel can be delegated the task of applying restraints under the supervision and direction of a nurse. Determining the need for restraints (Choice A) and obtaining an order for a restraint (Choice B) involve clinical judgment and assessment, which are responsibilities of the nurse. Assessing the patient's orientation (Choice C) also requires a level of assessment that should be performed by a nurse.
A nurse delegates a position change to a nursing assistive personnel. The nurse instructs the assistive personnel (AP) to place the patient in the lateral position. Which finding by the nurse indicates a correct outcome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because the lateral position means lying on the side with body weight on the dependent hip and shoulder. Choice A is incorrect as 'semiprone' means lying on the abdomen with one leg flexed. Choice C is incorrect as 'prone' means lying face down. Choice D is incorrect as 'supine' means lying on the back.
What is the most appropriate action for handling hazardous drugs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate action when handling hazardous drugs is to wear personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect oneself from exposure to the harmful substances. Gloves and handwashing are important but may not provide sufficient protection from hazardous drugs. Storing drugs correctly and disposing of unused drugs properly are also essential, but the primary focus should be on using PPE to prevent exposure.
When providing discharge instructions for a patient with diabetes, what is the most important information to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical information to include when providing discharge instructions for a patient with diabetes is teaching them how to monitor their blood sugar levels. This empowers the patient to actively manage their condition, make informed decisions about their diet and medication, and prevent complications. Encouraging a high-carbohydrate diet (Choice A) can be detrimental for diabetic patients as it may lead to unstable blood sugar levels. While regular exercise (Choice C) is important in diabetes management, monitoring blood sugar levels takes precedence. Providing a list of restricted foods (Choice D) is relevant but not as crucial as teaching the patient how to monitor their blood sugar levels.
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a new tracheostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy as needed to maintain a patent airway. After a tracheostomy procedure, the immediate concern is airway patency to prevent respiratory compromise. Suctioning helps clear secretions and maintains a clear airway, reducing the risk of respiratory distress. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but not the priority compared to ensuring a clear airway. Providing humidified air (choice C) and administering pain medication (choice D) are also essential aspects of care for a patient with a tracheostomy, but they are not the priority when immediate airway management is required.
How should the nurse manage the client's pain if a client with a history of substance abuse is requesting pain medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with a history of substance abuse requests pain medication, the nurse should first assess the patient's pain level. It is important to determine the nature and intensity of the pain before administering any medication to ensure appropriate pain management. Administering medication without assessing the pain level can lead to unnecessary drug administration or inadequate pain relief. Administering a placebo would be unethical and ineffective. Refusing to give any medication without proper assessment can compromise the client's comfort and recovery. Therefore, the correct approach is to assess the patient's pain level first before deciding on the most suitable pain management intervention.
If a client refuses surgery, but the family insists, what should the nurse do in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the nurse should respect the client's decision and notify the healthcare provider. The client has the right to refuse treatment, and the nurse must advocate for the client's autonomy. Proceeding with the surgery against the client's wishes would violate their autonomy and ethical principles. Trying to mediate between the family and the client may be appropriate, but ultimately, the client's decision should be respected. Encouraging the client to follow their family's wishes disregards the client's autonomy and is not ethically appropriate.
When a patient refuses to remove their religious jewelry before surgery, what is the best response for the nurse preparing for the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response for the nurse is to ask the patient for permission to secure the jewelry safely. Hospital policy typically requires jewelry to be secured or removed to prevent interference during surgery. Proceeding with the surgery without addressing the issue or taping the jewelry to the patient's body are not safe practices and can lead to complications during the procedure. Directing the patient to remove the jewelry without exploring alternative solutions is not patient-centered care and may create unnecessary tension.
A client who is 97 years old has successfully been treated for heart failure and is found not breathing. There is no DNR order in place. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, with no DNR order in place and the client not breathing, the nurse should initiate CPR and call for emergency assistance. Option A is incorrect as immediate action is required in the absence of breathing. Option C is incorrect as the nurse should act promptly to provide life-saving measures. Option D is incorrect because the nurse's primary duty is to provide care in the absence of a directive preventing intervention.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the hospital. The nurse observes the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) turning off the handle faucet with bare hands. Which professional practice principle supports the need for follow-up with the NAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The nurse is responsible for providing a safe environment for the patient. In this situation, the nurse should follow up with the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) who turned off the handle faucet with bare hands to ensure infection control practices are maintained. This action is crucial to prevent the spread of infections in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because the question is not specifically about handwashing procedures but about infection control practices. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of infection transmission. Choice D is incorrect as it is unrelated to the main concern of infection control in this scenario.
The nurse is assessing the patient for respiratory complications of immobility. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Auscultating the entire lung region is the most appropriate action when assessing a patient for respiratory complications related to immobility. This approach helps the nurse identify any abnormalities in lung sounds, such as diminished breath sounds or the presence of secretions. Assessing the patient at regular intervals (choice B) is important but does not specifically address the respiratory assessment needed in this situation. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (choice C) may miss potential issues in other areas. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (choice D) is not the most effective way to assess lung sounds and identify respiratory complications.
What is the most important action for the nurse to take after finding a patient on the floor who reports, 'I fell out of bed'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action for the nurse to take after finding a patient on the floor who reports falling out of bed is to notify the health care provider. This is crucial to ensure that the incident is reported, documented, and that the patient receives necessary follow-up care. Reassessing the patient is important, but notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence to address any potential injuries or issues that may have resulted from the fall. Completing an incident report is necessary, but immediate notification to the healthcare provider is more critical in this situation. Doing nothing is not an appropriate response, as the patient's safety and well-being must be the top priority.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation in COPD. Oxygen therapy helps maintain adequate oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for managing COPD. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry, assisting with coughing and deep breathing exercises, and positioning the patient in high Fowler's position are all beneficial interventions, but administering oxygen is the priority for immediate oxygenation support in COPD.
Which intervention is most effective for managing a patient with constipation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most effective intervention for managing constipation in a patient is to administer a stool softener as prescribed. Stool softeners help relieve constipation by making the stool easier to pass, especially in postoperative patients. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but may not address the underlying cause of constipation. While a high-fiber diet is important for bowel health, it may not provide immediate relief for constipation. Teaching a patient to perform Valsalva maneuvers is not recommended for managing constipation as it can lead to adverse effects like increasing intra-abdominal pressure.
A patient is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric (NG) tube. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the placement of the NG tube before each feeding is crucial as it ensures the tube is correctly positioned, reducing the risk of complications such as aspiration or improper delivery of feedings. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after each feeding can disrupt the feeding schedule and is not a standard procedure. Administering medications through the NG tube every 4 hours may not be necessary for all patients and should be based on specific medication requirements. Increasing the feeding rate without proper assessment and monitoring can lead to feeding intolerance or complications, making it an inappropriate intervention.
When teaching a patient about self-administration of insulin, what is the most important instruction to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important instruction to provide when teaching a patient about self-administration of insulin is to rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage. Rotating injection sites helps prevent lipodystrophy (tissue damage) and ensures proper insulin absorption. Option B is incorrect because the angle of insulin injection varies depending on the patient's body composition. Injecting at a 90-degree angle is not always necessary. Option C is not the most crucial instruction; while storing insulin in the refrigerator is important, it is not the priority when teaching self-administration. Option D is also important for maintaining consistency but is not as critical as rotating injection sites to prevent tissue damage.
A client asks about becoming an organ donor. What information should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. For organ donation to be legally valid, the donor must sign consent documents in the presence of a witness. Choice A is incorrect because while discussing with family is important, it is not a legal requirement for organ donation. Choice B is incorrect as the organ donation process involves various steps and procedures that cannot begin immediately. Choice C is incorrect because organ donation typically requires consent and cooperation from the family if the donor is unable to provide consent.
A healthcare provider prescribes a higher-than-usual dose of medication. What is the nurse's first action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to call the provider for clarification. When faced with a higher-than-usual dose of medication, the nurse's first action should be to contact the prescribing healthcare provider to confirm the dosage. Administering the medication without clarifying the dose with the provider can pose serious risks to the patient's safety. Holding the medication and consulting the pharmacist may be appropriate after contacting the provider for clarification. Asking another nurse to verify the dose is not the most appropriate action when dealing with an unusual prescription; direct communication with the provider is essential in such situations.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter and a prescription for a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to withdraw 3 to 5 ml of urine from the port for an accurate culture and sensitivity test. Wiping the area around the needleless port with sterile water (Choice A) is not necessary when obtaining a urine specimen. Inserting the syringe into the needleless port at a 60-degree angle (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not align with the correct procedure for obtaining a urine specimen. Donning sterile gloves (Choice D) is a good practice but not the immediate action required for obtaining a urine specimen.
The nurse asks a client who is about to have a cardiac catheterization about any allergies. The client states, 'I always get a rash when I eat shellfish.' Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Notifying the provider of the client's shellfish allergy is crucial to prevent a potential reaction from the contrast dye. While attaching a wristband indicating the allergy may be necessary, the priority is to inform the provider. Asking the client about other foods causing a similar reaction or notifying the dietary department, although important, are not the priority in this situation.
A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for a rash. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Prednisone should never be stopped abruptly; it must be tapered down. Stopping it suddenly can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choices A, B, and C are all potential side effects or considerations when taking prednisone and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following activities should the client avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Driving a car. Driving a car can be physically and emotionally taxing, increasing the risk of complications soon after a myocardial infarction. It requires quick reflexes and decision-making abilities, which may be impaired during the recovery period. Swimming in a pool, light housework, and walking on flat ground are generally safe and beneficial activities for clients following a myocardial infarction as they promote circulation, muscle strength, and overall well-being.
What are the complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for include nephropathy and cardiovascular disease, in addition to diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, neuropathy, and retinopathy. While choices A and C mention some complications of diabetes, they do not cover all the complications that a nurse should monitor for. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests selecting all options, which is not accurate.
A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.
What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.
A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for chest pain. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve oxygen supply to the heart. Obtaining a detailed medical history, conducting an ECG, or administering morphine sulfate are important steps in the assessment and treatment process but are secondary to the immediate need to address chest pain and potential cardiac ischemia.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin subcutaneously at a 45-degree angle. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (Inject at a 90-degree angle) is incorrect because subcutaneous injections are usually given at a shallower angle. Option C (Massage the injection site after administering) is incorrect as massaging the site can cause bruising and should generally be avoided. Option D (Use a longer needle) is incorrect as using a longer needle is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injecting the medication too deeply.
A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.
A nurse is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations as a complication and contact the provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: A nurse should identify an increased heart rate as a complication following a thoracentesis and contact the provider immediately. An increased heart rate may indicate a pneumothorax or other serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased temperature, serosanguineous drainage, and discomfort at the puncture site are expected findings following a thoracentesis and do not indicate a significant complication requiring immediate provider notification.
A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics is to obtain a sputum culture. This is important to identify the specific bacteria causing the pneumonia before administering antibiotics. Administering the antibiotic immediately (Choice A) may not be appropriate without knowing the specific pathogen. Notifying the provider of the prescription (Choice C) is important but not the first action to be taken. Checking the client's allergy history (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority in this situation.
How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which of the following inter-professional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting regarding the client's condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in evaluating and treating swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia, which commonly occurs following a stroke. They are experts in developing strategies to help individuals improve their ability to swallow safely. Occupational therapists (B) focus on helping individuals regain independence in activities of daily living, not specifically addressing swallowing concerns. Dietitians (C) primarily work on developing appropriate nutrition plans but may not directly address swallowing issues. Pharmacy technicians (D) assist pharmacists in dispensing medications and are not directly involved in managing swallowing difficulties.
What is the definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner by a professional. This choice is correct because malpractice occurs when a professional does not meet the standard of care expected in their field, leading to harm or injury to the client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because malpractice is specifically about the failure to meet professional standards of care, rather than personal standards, miscommunication within a healthcare team, or inadequate documentation of patient care.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.
Which of the following foods is a good source of protein?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cheddar cheese is indeed a good source of protein, providing a significant amount per serving. While chicken and tofu are also high in protein, cheddar cheese can be a beneficial source, especially for individuals looking for non-meat options. Almonds, while nutritious, are not as high in protein compared to the other options listed.
When preparing to give a report during a shift change, what information is most critical to communicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a shift change report, the most critical information to communicate is focusing on changes in the patient's condition. This helps ensure that all healthcare providers are aware of any significant developments or deterioration in the patient's health status, allowing for timely and appropriate interventions. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial during a shift report. While a full family medical history and treatment plan are important aspects of patient care, they are not the primary focus during a shift change report. Providing updates on lab results may be important but may not be as time-sensitive or immediately impactful as changes in the patient's condition.
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client by nasogastric tube. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Check the tube placement before administering any medication. Before administering medication through a nasogastric tube, the nurse must first verify the tube's correct placement to ensure the medication reaches the stomach and to prevent complications such as aspiration. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because administering medication without confirming proper tube placement can lead to serious consequences for the client.
The nurse has received a report from the emergency department that a patient with tuberculosis will be coming to the unit. Which items will the nurse need to care for this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Caring for a patient with tuberculosis requires the nurse to use an N95 respirator, gown, gloves, and eyewear to protect against airborne transmission of the disease. Choice B and D are incorrect because while communication signs for precautions are important, the essential items needed for caring for a patient with tuberculosis are personal protective equipment to prevent transmission. Choice C is also incorrect as negative-pressure airflow in the room is a facility-related requirement and not an item carried by the nurse.
The nurse is working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit that requires lifting and positioning of patients. Which personal injury will the nurse most likely try to prevent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Back. Back injuries are most common during lifting and bending tasks, especially in an orthopedic unit. When lifting or repositioning patients, nurses must prioritize proper body mechanics to prevent strain on the back. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to occur as frequently as back injuries in this scenario because of the nature of the tasks involved in orthopedic patient care.
Which factor places a patient at the highest risk for infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of chronic illness is the factor that places a patient at the highest risk for infection. Chronic illness can compromise the immune system's ability to fight off infections effectively, making individuals more susceptible to getting sick. Option A, a healthy immune system, actually reduces the risk of infection. Option C, being well-nourished, can support overall health but does not directly correlate with infection risk. While age over 65 years is a risk factor for certain infections due to age-related immune system changes, chronic illness has a more significant impact on infection risk.
After surgery, a patient is experiencing pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the patient's pain using a pain scale. This is the priority action because it allows the nurse to obtain an objective measure of the patient's pain intensity. By accurately assessing the pain level, the nurse can determine the appropriate intervention, which may include administering pain medication as prescribed (choice A) or offering non-pharmacological pain relief methods (choice C). Reassessing the patient's pain level after 30 minutes (choice D) is important but comes after the initial assessment to evaluate the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.
Which action by the nurse will help reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a postoperative patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. By promoting early ambulation and leg exercises, blood flow is enhanced, reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in postoperative patients. Choice B, applying compression stockings, helps prevent VTE but is not as effective as early ambulation and exercises. Choice C, administering anticoagulants, is important in VTE prevention but does not directly address improving circulation through physical activity. Choice D, elevating the patient's legs, may be beneficial for circulation in specific cases but is not as effective in preventing VTE as early ambulation and leg exercises.
A patient with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the patient's protein intake closely. In patients with chronic kidney disease on a low-protein diet, monitoring protein intake is crucial to prevent complications such as malnutrition or inadequate nutrient intake. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority over monitoring protein intake. Monitoring intake and output (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the specific focus on protein intake. Educating the patient on the benefits of a low-protein diet (Choice C) is essential but not as immediate as monitoring the actual protein intake.
What is the most important nursing action when caring for a patient with a central venous catheter (CVC)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important nursing action when caring for a patient with a central venous catheter (CVC) is to change the CVC dressing every 72 hours. This practice reduces the risk of infection and ensures the catheter remains secure. Monitoring the patient's blood pressure regularly is important but not the most crucial action when managing a CVC. Flushing the CVC with normal saline is essential but not the most important action. Avoiding using the CVC for blood draws is a good practice, but it is not the most critical nursing action in this scenario.
A client complains of pain in the leg while in skeletal traction. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Check for signs of infection. In skeletal traction, the priority action for the nurse when a client complains of pain in the leg is to first assess for signs of infection. Pain in skeletal traction can be a symptom of infection or other complications, so checking for signs of infection is crucial before considering other interventions. Increasing pain medication immediately (Choice A) may mask the symptoms of an underlying infection. Repositioning the client's leg for comfort (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the potential underlying issue. Notifying the physician of the client's complaints (Choice D) is important but assessing for infection should come first to ensure timely and appropriate intervention.
A client is undergoing chemotherapy and expresses concern about hair loss. What is the best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response when a client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss is to advise them that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss. This response provides accurate information to the client about the side effect they are experiencing. Choice A is incorrect because it may provide false reassurance as for some individuals, hair loss can be a challenging experience. Choice B is not the best initial response as addressing the client's concerns and providing information should come first. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as cutting hair short may not necessarily prevent hair loss and does not address the client's concerns about the temporary nature of chemotherapy-induced hair loss.
A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.
A client scheduled for a CT scan of the head with contrast is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because metformin should be held before a contrast CT scan to prevent the risk of kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding the preparation and experience of a CT scan with contrast. It is important to fast before the procedure, keep the head still during the scan, and expect a warm sensation when the dye is injected.
A client has urinary incontinence, and the nurse is caring for them. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to prevent the development of skin breakdown?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to prevent skin breakdown in a client with urinary incontinence is to apply a moisture barrier ointment to the skin. This ointment helps protect the skin from the harmful effects of moisture exposure, reducing the risk of breakdown. Requesting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention for skin breakdown prevention. Checking the client's skin for signs of breakdown (Choice B) is important but not as effective as applying a moisture barrier. Cleaning the skin with hot water (Choice D) can actually be detrimental as hot water can strip the skin of its natural oils and worsen skin integrity.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed warfarin. What should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. When a client is prescribed warfarin, they should be educated to report any unusual bleeding or bruising promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding foods rich in vitamin K is not necessary when taking warfarin, as long as intake remains consistent. Warfarin does not need to be taken with meals, and aspirin should not be taken for pain relief due to its blood-thinning effects, which can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with warfarin.
What are the important considerations when administering blood products to a patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verifying the patient's identity before administration is a critical step to ensure that the correct blood product is given to the right patient, thereby preventing transfusion errors. While ensuring proper documentation of the transfusion (choice A) is important for record-keeping, verifying patient identity (choice B) directly addresses the risk of administering blood to the wrong patient. Monitoring for allergic reactions or transfusion reactions (choice C) and monitoring the patient's vital signs during transfusion (choice D) are also essential considerations during blood product administration, but verifying patient identity takes precedence to prevent potentially life-threatening errors.
Which of the following is an example of professional negligence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Professional negligence involves failing to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession, which can lead to harm. In this case, not following facility guidelines can result in lapses in safety or quality of care, potentially causing harm to clients. Choices B, C, and D all represent essential aspects of professional conduct and do not directly relate to negligence.
A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to hang the drainage bag below the bladder. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not necessary unless clinically indicated and may increase infection risk by introducing pathogens. Ensuring the tubing is unkinked promotes proper urine flow but does not directly prevent infection. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important to prevent urinary stasis but does not directly address infection prevention.
What are the instructions for a behind-the-ear hearing aid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to remove a behind-the-ear hearing aid before showering to prevent water damage. Choice A is incorrect because it is safe to wear the hearing aid while sleeping as it does not pose a risk of damage. Choice C is incorrect because it is advisable to remove the hearing aid during certain activities to prevent damage or loss. Choice D is incorrect as hearing aids do not need to be replaced weekly unless there is an issue with the device.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.
A client with a new prescription for sumatriptan tablets to treat migraine headaches should report which of the following symptoms to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because swelling of the eyelids is a side effect of sumatriptan tablets that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Chewing the tablet well before swallowing is not necessary for sumatriptan tablets. Repeating the dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache is incorrect as this medication should not be repeated within 24 hours. Taking sumatriptan daily for headache prevention is also incorrect as it is used for acute treatment, not prevention.
A nurse is assessing a client's wound dressing and observes a watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, serosanguineous. Serosanguineous drainage is thin, watery, and pale red, indicating a mixture of serous fluid and blood. Choice A (purulent) refers to thick, yellow or green drainage indicating infection. Choice B (serous) is thin, clear drainage. Choice C (sanguineous) is bright red, indicating fresh bleeding.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Yellow-tinged vision.' Yellow-tinged vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating an overdose of the medication. This visual disturbance is a critical adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent serious complications.\n\nChoice A, 'Increased appetite,' is not typically associated with digoxin use and is not a common adverse effect.\n\nChoice B, 'Rash on the face,' is also not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Skin rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity.\n\nChoice D, 'Weight gain,' is not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of digoxin toxicity and is unlikely to be related to the medication.
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism is crucial in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it can be a life-threatening complication. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed is important for preventing clot progression, the immediate concern is detecting potential pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings and encouraging leg elevation are beneficial measures for managing DVT symptoms but are not as critical as monitoring for pulmonary embolism.
A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with pneumonia. Which finding is most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Crackles heard in the lung bases are most concerning in a patient with pneumonia as they suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating possible severe infection or respiratory distress. Prompt intervention is required to prevent further complications.\n\nChoice A, fever of 101°F, is common in infections like pneumonia but may not be as immediately concerning as crackles indicating fluid in the lungs.\n\nChoice B, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, is within normal limits and not directly indicative of pneumonia severity.\n\nChoice C, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, is slightly elevated but not as critical as crackles suggesting fluid in the lungs.
An occupational health nurse in a factory is planning interventions to reduce environmental stressors for employees. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to affect physical agents in the environment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Limiting exposure to extreme temperatures is important to protect workers from heat-related illnesses.
A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with pneumonia. Which finding is most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Crackles heard in the lung bases are most concerning in a patient with pneumonia as they suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating possible severe infection or respiratory distress. Prompt intervention is required to prevent further complications.\n\nChoice A, fever of 101°F, is common in infections like pneumonia but may not be as immediately concerning as crackles indicating fluid in the lungs.\n\nChoice B, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, is within normal limits and not directly indicative of pneumonia severity.\n\nChoice C, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, is slightly elevated but not as critical as crackles suggesting fluid in the lungs.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.