Free ATI RN Capstone practice for ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B (ATI RN). Answer 67 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progr
A nurse notices another nurse skipping hand hygiene. What is the appropriate course of action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct hand hygiene is crucial for preventing the spread of infections and ensuring patient safety. When a nurse observes another healthcare worker skipping hand hygiene practices, it is essential to report this behavior to the supervisor. Reporting ensures that appropriate action is taken to address the issue and maintain a safe environment for patients. Ignoring the situation (Choice A) may compromise patient safety. Discussing the issue directly with the nurse (Choice C) may not always be effective in ensuring compliance. Doing nothing and continuing with patient care (Choice D) disregards the importance of infection control protocols.
A client is preparing for a surgical procedure but refuses to remove religious jewelry. What is the best course of action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best course of action is to ask the client for permission to secure the jewelry. This respects the client's religious beliefs while also ensuring that the jewelry does not interfere during the surgical procedure. Proceeding with surgery without addressing the presence of the jewelry can lead to complications or distress for the client. Removing the jewelry without consent or postponing the surgery solely due to the presence of religious jewelry are not appropriate actions in this situation.
The nurse is caring for a patient on contact precautions. Which action will be most appropriate to prevent the spread of disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use a dedicated blood pressure cuff that stays in the room and is used for that patient only. Patients on contact precautions require dedicated equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Using one blood pressure cuff exclusively for the patient on contact precautions helps minimize the risk of transmitting infections to other patients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while wearing protective gear and isolating the patient in a room with negative airflow are important infection control measures, using dedicated equipment for the patient on contact precautions is specifically recommended to prevent the spread of disease in this scenario.
Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, and achievable. Walking 100 feet using a walker is a realistic and individualized target for a patient in the recovery phase following hip surgery. Choices A, C, and D are not as suitable: Choice A does not specify a measurable distance or objective, Choice C sets a potentially unrealistic expectation for brisk ambulation on a treadmill, and Choice D lacks the specificity of the distance to be walked.
What should be done to ensure safety during the transfer of a patient with limited mobility?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to lock the wheels on the bed and wheelchair. This action helps prevent accidents by stabilizing the equipment during the transfer process. Having the patient use a gait belt for support (choice A) can be helpful but is not directly related to equipment safety. Encouraging the patient to hold onto a walker (choice B) is beneficial for ambulation but does not address the safety of equipment. Asking the patient to transfer independently (choice D) can pose risks, especially for a patient with limited mobility, and may not ensure safety during the transfer.
How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.
When educating a patient with hypertension about lifestyle changes, what is the most crucial advice to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical lifestyle change for a patient with hypertension is to reduce salt intake. Excessive salt consumption can lead to increased blood pressure levels. While limiting alcohol consumption (Choice B) and regular exercise (Choice C) are also beneficial for managing hypertension, reducing salt intake has a more direct impact on blood pressure control. Avoiding high-cholesterol foods (Choice D) is important for heart health but may not have as significant an impact on blood pressure as reducing salt intake.
When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient, what is the nurse's priority assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the patient's blood pressure regularly. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient as it helps in evaluating the patient's fluid status. Changes in blood pressure can indicate the effectiveness of the fluid therapy, the patient's response to treatment, and the possibility of complications such as fluid overload or hypovolemia. Monitoring electrolyte levels (Choice A) is essential but not the priority when assessing a dehydrated patient receiving IV fluids. Heart rate (Choice C) should be monitored more frequently than every 4 hours in such a situation. Checking urine output (Choice D) is important but not as critical as assessing blood pressure in this scenario.
When caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient with an NG tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration by promoting the proper flow of contents through the gastrointestinal tract and minimizing the chances of stomach contents entering the airway. Flushing the NG tube with water before each feeding may not directly prevent aspiration. Checking the placement of the NG tube is important but does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration. Providing oral care every 4 hours is essential for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to preventing aspiration in a patient with an NG tube.
When considering a bone marrow transplant for a client with leukemia, which ethical principle pertains to minimizing harm to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to do no harm, making it crucial in medical decision-making. In the context of a bone marrow transplant for a client with leukemia, the primary concern is to minimize harm and avoid causing any unnecessary suffering or adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Justice relates to fairness in resource allocation and treatment decisions, Autonomy involves respecting the patient's right to make decisions about their own care, and Beneficence refers to the obligation to act in the patient's best interest and promote their well-being, which may involve some level of risk or harm for overall benefit.
A healthcare provider writes a medication order that seems excessively high for the patient's condition. What is the nurse's first step?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first step for the nurse when encountering a medication order that appears excessively high for the patient's condition is to hold the medication and consult the provider. Administering the medication immediately (Choice A) without clarification could pose a risk to the patient's safety. Reducing the dose without consulting the provider (Choice C) is not recommended as it may lead to suboptimal treatment. Administering the medication after double-checking with another nurse (Choice D) is not sufficient; consulting the provider directly is crucial to ensure the accuracy and safety of the medication order.
A client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Pain and swelling at an IV site can indicate infiltration or infection, which are serious complications. Stopping the infusion helps prevent further harm to the client, and notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and intervention. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the IV line and continuing the infusion could exacerbate the issue. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the IV infusion rate is not the appropriate action for pain and swelling at the site. Choice D is incorrect because applying a warm compress may not address the underlying issue of infiltration or infection; it's crucial to stop the infusion and seek further guidance.
Which nursing action will most likely increase a patient's risk for developing a health care-associated infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Using a clean technique for inserting a urinary catheter increases the risk for healthcare-associated infections. Invasive procedures like catheter insertion require a sterile technique to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate infection control measures by emphasizing the use of sterile or aseptic techniques. Choice D represents an incorrect technique that can lead to the introduction of bacteria from the rectum into the urinary tract, potentially causing infections.
The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Dangle the patient at the bedside.' When a patient has been in bed for an extended period and needs to be ambulated, it is essential to dangle the patient at the bedside first. Dangling involves helping the patient sit on the edge of the bed with their legs over the side before standing up. This action helps prevent orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down to standing up, which can lead to dizziness or fainting. Encouraging isometric exercises (choice B) or suggesting a high-calcium diet (choice C) are not the first actions to take before ambulating a patient. Maintaining a narrow base of support (choice D) is related to assisting with ambulation but is not the initial step that should be taken.
Which of the following statements reflects the principles of sterile technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement reflecting the principles of sterile technique is that sterile objects that come in contact with unsterile objects are considered contaminated. This principle is crucial in maintaining asepsis during medical procedures. Choice B is incorrect because items in a sterile package should only be used if they remain sterile; opening the package does not automatically contaminate the items. Choice C is incorrect as any part of a sterile field that hangs below the top of the table is considered unsterile. Choice D is incorrect as the edge of a sterile field and a border inward are typically considered unsterile to maintain the integrity of the sterile area.
How can a healthcare provider prevent pressure ulcers in an immobile patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Providing the immobile patient with a special mattress is an effective way to prevent pressure ulcers. Special mattresses help distribute pressure evenly and reduce the risk of developing pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on sensitive areas. Turning the patient every 4 hours (Choice A) is a standard practice to prevent pressure ulcers but may not be as effective as using a special mattress. Elevating the patient's legs (Choice C) can help with circulation but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers. Limiting the patient's movement (Choice D) can lead to other complications and is not a recommended method for preventing pressure ulcers.
A nurse is caring for a patient with an infection. Which laboratory result is most important to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: White blood cell count (WBC). Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial when caring for a patient with an infection as it helps assess the body's response to the infection. An elevated white blood cell count often indicates an active infection or inflammation, while a decreasing count may signal improvement or potential complications. C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are nonspecific markers of inflammation and not as specific to monitoring infection progression as the white blood cell count. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume, but they are not the primary indicators for monitoring infection.
Which finding in a postoperative patient requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a postoperative patient, an oxygen saturation level of 88% on room air indicates a significant drop below the normal range, suggesting potential respiratory distress. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the patient receives adequate oxygenation. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute is within the normal range, making it a less concerning finding. A blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg falls within the normal range for blood pressure and does not require immediate intervention. Crackles heard in the lung bases may indicate fluid accumulation but may not always require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.
A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. What is the most important action to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using sterile gloves during catheter insertion is crucial to prevent infection. Sterile gloves help maintain asepsis during the procedure, reducing the risk of introducing microorganisms into the urinary tract. Cleaning the insertion site with alcohol, as mentioned in choice B, is important but not as critical as using sterile gloves. Choice C, inserting the catheter as quickly as possible, is not recommended as it can lead to errors and increase the risk of contamination. Choice D, using a smaller catheter size to minimize trauma, is not directly related to preventing infection but rather focuses on patient comfort and reducing tissue damage.
A client with leukemia is considered for a bone marrow transplant. Which principle of healthcare ethics is being practiced by minimizing harm to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that focuses on avoiding harm to the patient. In this scenario, by considering a bone marrow transplant for the client with leukemia, healthcare professionals are practicing nonmaleficence by aiming to minimize harm. Choice A, Justice, pertains to fairness in the distribution of resources and decisions, which is not the primary focus in this situation. Choice B, Beneficence, involves promoting the patient's well-being, which is related but not directly addressing the act of minimizing harm. Choice D, Autonomy, refers to respecting the patient's right to make decisions about their own care, which is not the key principle at play when minimizing harm in this context.
A client with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order has requested resuscitation during a family visit. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Nurses have a legal and ethical obligation to honor a client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, regardless of any request for resuscitation during a family visit. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that the DNR order must be respected. Choice A is incorrect because starting resuscitation against the client's documented wishes goes against the principle of autonomy. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the client's autonomy and legal directives. Choice D is not the best option as the nurse should prioritize honoring the client's decision as per the DNR order.
A nurse is teaching an older adult client who reports constipation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to drink four to five glasses of water daily. Increasing water intake helps alleviate constipation by softening stool and increasing bowel movements. Choice A, increasing dietary intake of raw vegetables, can be helpful in preventing constipation but may not be sufficient as the sole intervention for someone already experiencing constipation. Choice B, limiting activity, can worsen constipation as physical activity helps stimulate bowel movements. Choice D, bearing down hard when defecating, can lead to other issues like hemorrhoids and should be avoided.
A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about over-the-counter medications that belong to pregnancy risk category B. Which of the following medications should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acetaminophen is the correct choice as it belongs to pregnancy risk category B, making it considered safe during pregnancy. Naproxen, Aspirin, and Ibuprofen are not recommended during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, as they are classified in higher-risk categories which may be harmful to the developing fetus.
The nurse is evaluating a client who had a cardiac catheterization with a left antecubital insertion site. Which of the following pulses should the nurse palpate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to palpate the radial pulse in the left arm. When the antecubital insertion site is on the left side, it is important to assess the radial pulse on the same side to monitor circulation accurately. Palpating the brachial pulse in the right or left arm or the radial pulse in the right arm would not provide direct information about the circulation related to the catheterization site.
A client is administering insulin. Which statement by the client shows proper understanding of insulin administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because rotating injection sites prevents tissue damage and ensures better absorption of insulin. Option A is incorrect as injecting insulin into the thigh before exercise can lead to hypoglycemia. Option B is incorrect as skipping meals can cause blood sugar levels to drop dangerously low. Option C is incorrect as insulin should not be stored in the freezer as it can alter its effectiveness.
What are the signs of infection that should be monitored in a postoperative patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site.' These are specific signs of infection at the surgical site that a nurse should monitor for in a postoperative patient. While fever, chills, and increased pain can also indicate infection, the most direct signs are redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site. Therefore, 'D' is the best choice as it directly relates to the site of the surgery and is crucial to monitor for potential postoperative infections.
A nurse is planning a staff education program to review nursing interventions for clients who have kidney failure. Which of the following sources should the nurse identify as the best resource for obtaining evidence-based information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A peer-reviewed nursing research article is the best resource for obtaining evidence-based information because it provides the most current and reliable data on nursing interventions. Choice A, the advice of an expert nephrology nurse, may be helpful but could be based on individual experience rather than the latest research. Retrospective chart reviews (Choice B) focus on past cases and may not reflect current best practices. Facility critical pathways (Choice C) offer standardized care plans but may not always incorporate the most up-to-date evidence-based practices.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an ethical conflict about the care she is receiving. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult about resolving the dilemma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the hospital ethics committee. This committee is specifically designed to address and resolve ethical conflicts in patient care. It comprises professionals from various disciplines who can provide guidance and support in navigating ethical dilemmas. Choice B, the quality improvement committee, focuses on enhancing the quality of care provided but may not be equipped to handle ethical conflicts. Choice C, the chaplain, offers spiritual and emotional support but may not have the expertise to resolve ethical dilemmas. Choice D, the director of nursing, is responsible for nursing operations and may not be the appropriate resource for addressing ethical conflicts.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cataract extraction. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Avoid lifting more than 10 lb.' After a cataract extraction, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid lifting heavy objects to prevent increased intraocular pressure, which could lead to complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A - 'Bend at the waist when picking up objects' can increase intraocular pressure; B - 'Avoid lying on the operative side' is not a specific concern related to cataract extraction; D - 'Apply ice to the affected eye' is not a standard post-cataract extraction instruction.
A nurse is providing home care for a client who is receiving tube feedings and medication through a gastrostomy tube. The family member providing the feedings reports that the client has begun to have diarrhea. For which of the following practices should the nurse intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Cleansing the bag every 24 hours can lead to contamination, increasing the risk of infection and diarrhea. Using tap water (choice C) is not recommended for cleaning the gastrostomy tube due to the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. Cleansing the bag every 48 hours (choice B) is not frequent enough and may also contribute to infection. Flushing the tube every 4 hours (choice D) is a standard practice to ensure patency and should not be intervened by the nurse.
A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following lab values should the provider report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Sodium 126 mEq/L. A sodium level of 126 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hyponatremia, which can have serious health implications and should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within or close to the normal ranges for magnesium, potassium, and chloride, respectively, and do not require immediate reporting as they are not significantly abnormal.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a total thyroidectomy and has a serum calcium level of 7.6 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Tingling of the extremities. Tingling is a common symptom of hypocalcemia, which is expected with low calcium levels after a thyroidectomy. Option A, shortened QT intervals, is associated with hypercalcemia rather than hypocalcemia. Option B, hypoactive deep tendon reflexes, is not typically related to hypocalcemia. Option D, constipation, is not a common finding associated with low calcium levels.
A client with left hemiparesis is learning how to use a cane. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to use a cane for a client with left hemiparesis is to hold the cane on the right side to provide support for the weaker left leg. This allows for better stability and weight distribution. Placing the cane approximately 61 cm (24 in) in front of their feet before advancing (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to improper gait. Advancing the stronger leg and the cane together (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not provide support for the weaker leg. Removing the rubber tip when using the cane (Choice C) is also incorrect as the rubber tip helps provide traction and stability.
A nurse is teaching a client about signs of infection after surgery. What statement indicates further teaching is required?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Any drainage from the incision site should be monitored, and any signs of infection, such as increased redness or warmth, need to be reported to the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D provide accurate information about signs of infection after surgery and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a chest tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper documentation of chest tube output is crucial in the care of a patient with a chest tube. While ensuring the chest tube is secured and functioning, checking for air leaks, and maintaining drainage below chest level are important aspects of care, documentation of output is essential for monitoring the patient's condition, assessing the effectiveness of treatment, and ensuring appropriate interventions if needed.
A newly licensed nurse tells a charge nurse that he is unsure about accepting telephone medication prescriptions. Which of the following providers should the charge nurse identify as having the legal ability to give telephone medication prescriptions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Anesthesiologists. Anesthesiologists are licensed providers who have the legal authority to give telephone medication prescriptions. Physician assistants (choice B), hospital pharmacists (choice C), and nurse practitioners (choice D) do not typically have the legal ability to provide medication prescriptions over the phone. In this scenario, the charge nurse should inform the newly licensed nurse that anesthesiologists are one of the providers who can legally give telephone medication prescriptions.
A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.
A patient prescribed warfarin is being taught about dietary restrictions by a healthcare provider. Which of the following foods should the patient be instructed to limit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Patients taking warfarin should limit foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness and consistent dosage. Bananas, potatoes, and apples are not high in vitamin K and do not typically interfere with warfarin therapy.
A patient on mechanical ventilation experiences a sudden drop in oxygen saturation. What should the nurse check first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the ventilator tubing for disconnection first when a patient on mechanical ventilation experiences a sudden drop in oxygen saturation. This is crucial because equipment malfunction, such as tubing disconnection, can lead to decreased oxygen delivery, resulting in a drop in oxygen saturation. Checking the tubing ensures that the ventilation system is functioning properly and that the patient is receiving the necessary oxygen. Option B is incorrect because increasing oxygen flow without checking for equipment issues may not address the root cause of the drop in saturation. Option C is not the priority in this situation as the immediate focus should be on assessing and ensuring the functioning of the ventilation equipment. Option D delays addressing the potential equipment malfunction, which could worsen the patient's condition if not promptly resolved.
A client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss. What should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Providing wigs and other coping resources helps clients manage the emotional effects of chemotherapy-related hair loss. Encouraging the client to cut their hair short before chemotherapy (Choice A) is not necessary as hair loss may still occur. Assuring the client that hair loss will be minimal (Choice C) may provide false hope as hair loss is a common side effect of chemotherapy. Offering medication to reduce hair loss (Choice D) is not a typical approach as chemotherapy-related hair loss is often an expected side effect that cannot be entirely prevented with medication.
The family member is observing a family member changing a dressing for a patient in the home health environment. Which observation indicates the family member has a correct understanding of how to manage contaminated dressings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to manage contaminated dressings is to place them in plastic bags for proper disposal. This helps prevent the spread of infection. Choice A is incorrect because saving part of the dressing is not a recommended practice. Choice C is not directly related to managing contaminated dressings. Choice D is incorrect as wrapping the used dressing in toilet tissue is not the appropriate way to dispose of contaminated dressings.
A nurse is assessing the skin of an immobilized patient. What will the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale to identify patients at high risk for impaired skin integrity. This tool helps in early identification and appropriate intervention. Choice B, limiting fluid intake, is not directly related to skin assessment. Choice C, having special times for inspection, may not ensure timely identification of skin issues. Choice D, assessing the skin every 4 hours, lacks specificity regarding the use of a validated tool for risk assessment.
Which of the following is a correct method of safely using a sterile dressing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct method of safely using a sterile dressing is to discard it after 24 hours of use. This is important to prevent contamination and promote proper wound healing. Choice A is incorrect because reusing a dressing, even if it appears clean, can introduce contaminants. Choice C is incorrect as dressing changes should not be based solely on visible drainage; they should be done within the recommended time frame. Choice D is incorrect because changing a dressing every 4 hours, regardless of its condition, can lead to unnecessary wastage and disturbance to the wound healing process.
Which intervention is essential when caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the placement of the NG tube before each feeding is crucial to ensure it is correctly positioned and safe to use. Option A is incorrect as routine suctioning can lead to complications and should only be done as needed. Option C is not necessary unless there are specific instructions for flushing. Option D is incorrect as the NG tube should only be removed by healthcare professionals based on medical criteria, not solely based on the patient's comfort.
What is the most appropriate method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Limit the duration of catheter use. Limiting the duration of catheterization is a crucial method for preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). Prolonged catheter use increases the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, leading to infections. Using clean gloves for insertion (choice A) is important for preventing contamination but does not address the main cause of CAUTIs. Using a smaller size catheter (choice C) may help reduce trauma but does not directly prevent infections. Changing the catheter tubing every 24 hours (choice D) is not necessary unless clinically indicated, and it is not the most effective method for preventing CAUTIs.
A patient with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. This intervention is the priority for a patient with asthma experiencing shortness of breath as it helps relax the airways, making breathing easier. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion but not the priority in this acute situation. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can also help with breathing but is not as immediate as administering a bronchodilator. While monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation closely (Choice D) is important, the immediate action to address the breathing difficulty is administering a bronchodilator.
A nurse observes a colleague not using proper hand hygiene. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to report the behavior to the supervisor. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings. By reporting the observed behavior to the supervisor, the nurse is prioritizing patient safety and promoting a culture of accountability. Ignoring the behavior (Choice A) can put patients at risk, discussing it with other colleagues (Choice B) may not address the issue effectively, and confronting the colleague directly (Choice C) might not be the most appropriate initial step and could lead to conflicts rather than a constructive resolution.
A nurse manager notes that a nurse is not following safety protocols. What should the manager do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first step for the nurse manager is to notify the hospital's safety committee. This action is crucial to ensure that the appropriate measures are taken promptly to address the non-compliance with safety protocols. Confronting the nurse directly may not be the best initial approach as involving the safety committee can provide a systematic and comprehensive response to the issue. Documenting the observation without addressing it or following up at a later time may delay the necessary actions to maintain a safe environment, making these choices less effective as the first course of action.
A nurse is teaching a female client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal about chlordiazepoxide. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pregnancy can complicate alcohol withdrawal treatment, and the provider should be notified.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when administering enoxaparin is not to expel the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. Expelling the air bubble may lead to the loss of medication and result in an incomplete dose. Aspirating for a blood return (Choice A) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections like enoxaparin. Inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (Choice B) is not specific to administering enoxaparin. Administering the medication 2.54 cm (1 in) from the umbilicus (Choice C) is not a standard guideline for enoxaparin administration.
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 2. To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg of digoxin, the nurse should administer two 0.125 mg tablets. This calculation ensures that the patient receives the correct amount of medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate dosage needed based on the available tablets and prescribed dose.
A client with hypertension is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement demonstrates comprehension of the instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the correct answer because taking hypertension medication at the same time each day ensures its effectiveness in managing blood pressure. Consistency in medication intake is crucial to control hypertension. Option A focuses on dietary management, which is essential but not directly related to medication adherence. Option B is incorrect as stopping hypertension medication abruptly can lead to complications. Option D addresses the importance of exercise, which is beneficial for hypertension but not directly related to medication adherence.
What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.
A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client pulseless. The client's living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. In the absence of a written DNR order by the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally obligated to initiate CPR to attempt to save the client's life. Administering emergency medications without CPR (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for life-saving measures. Calling the provider for a DNR order (Choice C) may cause a delay in providing necessary resuscitative measures. Respecting the client's wishes and not attempting CPR (Choice D) goes against the nurse's duty to provide immediate life-saving interventions in the absence of a DNR order.
A parent of a child who is terminally ill tells a nurse that she wants to take her child home. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should offer to explain the process of taking the child home and provide resources for the parent's decision. Choice B is the best response as it shows willingness to support the parent by offering information on what taking the child home would involve. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the parent's request or provide the necessary information and support needed in this situation.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following findings indicates a contraindication to clozapine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low WBC count (3,300/mm3) is a contraindication to clozapine because this medication can cause severe neutropenia. Neutropenia is a significant reduction in white blood cell count, increasing the risk of infections. Elevated fasting blood glucose, asthma, and hypertension are not direct contraindications to clozapine.
A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.
A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should be administered?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic effective in treating anthrax exposure. Fluconazole (Choice A) is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not anthrax. Tobramycin (Choice B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections but is not the first line of treatment for anthrax. Vancomycin (Choice D) is also an antibiotic, but it is not the preferred choice for treating anthrax.
A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hours. Available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 20 minutes. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To infuse 50 mL over 20 minutes, the pump should be set to 150 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the correct rate for the infusion of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given information.
What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.
A hospice nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of a terminal illness and her family. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because hospice care provides ongoing support to families with grief even after a patient's death. Choice A is incorrect because hospice care focuses on providing comfort and symptom management rather than disease treatment and rehabilitation. Choice B is incorrect as the statement does not accurately reflect the role of a hospice provider. Choice C is incorrect; a family caregiver is not a prerequisite for admission into a hospice facility.
A client has a new prescription for folic acid and believes it's only for pregnant women. What statement should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because folic acid is essential for the production of red blood cells in adults and children, not just for pregnant women. Option A is incorrect as folic acid is not exclusive to pregnant women. Option B is incorrect as a balanced diet may not provide sufficient folic acid. Option D is incorrect since folic acid supplementation is also recommended for other reasons beyond deficiency.
A nurse is assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Which finding is most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A fever of 101°F is the most concerning finding when assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Fever can indicate an inflammatory response to an infection, and in a postoperative patient, it can signal a surgical site infection or a systemic infection. Prompt attention is necessary to prevent complications such as sepsis. Mild redness at the incision site and increased drainage can be expected in the early postoperative period due to the normal healing process. A normal white blood cell count does not rule out infection as it can be influenced by various factors, and some infections may not initially cause a rise in white blood cells.
A client has a new prescription for folic acid and believes it's only for pregnant women. What statement should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because folic acid is essential for the production of red blood cells in adults and children, not just for pregnant women. Option A is incorrect as folic acid is not exclusive to pregnant women. Option B is incorrect as a balanced diet may not provide sufficient folic acid. Option D is incorrect since folic acid supplementation is also recommended for other reasons beyond deficiency.
A nurse is assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Which finding is most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A fever of 101°F is the most concerning finding when assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Fever can indicate an inflammatory response to an infection, and in a postoperative patient, it can signal a surgical site infection or a systemic infection. Prompt attention is necessary to prevent complications such as sepsis. Mild redness at the incision site and increased drainage can be expected in the early postoperative period due to the normal healing process. A normal white blood cell count does not rule out infection as it can be influenced by various factors, and some infections may not initially cause a rise in white blood cells.
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