which of the following is the antidote for heparin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.

3. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.

4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

5. A client has a prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased excretion of potassium in the urine. To counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance, the client should be advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. This instruction helps prevent potential complications associated with low potassium levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide in the morning does not affect its effectiveness; urine turning orange is not an expected side effect of Furosemide; and avoiding prolonged sunlight exposure is not directly related to Furosemide use.

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