Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
• B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
• C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
• D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.

2. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Take this medication with food to increase absorption.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in teaching the client about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to take the medication with food to improve gastrointestinal tolerance and prevent nausea. While absorption is not significantly affected by food, taking it with meals can help reduce adverse gastrointestinal effects. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is generally true for most medications but is not specific to Nevirapine. Choice D is a good practice for medication adherence but is not specific to the administration requirements of Nevirapine.

3. A patient is receiving spironolactone for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, can result in serious cardiac complications and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report any signs or symptoms of hyperkalemia to prevent potential adverse outcomes in the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not associated with hypernatremia, hyponatremia, or hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia is the critical finding that the nurse should report in a patient receiving spironolactone.

4. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

5. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

• A. Bony orbit
• B. Nasolacrimal duct
• C. Conjunctival sac
• D. Outer canthus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.

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