a nurse is preparing to administer heparin 15000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr the amount available is heparin injection 20000 unitsml how many ml
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The available heparin injection is 20,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose / Concentration = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL. Since the volume needs to be rounded up to the nearest tenth, the correct answer is 0.8 mL. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect because it does not account for rounding up the volume. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the precise calculation based on the given concentration and desired dose.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

3. While assessing a client taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation, which of the following findings is indicative of Amiodarone toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, which is a known adverse effect of Amiodarone. Clients on Amiodarone should be monitored for signs of pulmonary toxicity such as cough, dyspnea, and chest pain. This is important to detect early and prevent serious complications. The other options are not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Light yellow urine is not a common sign, tinnitus is more related to ear problems, and blue-gray skin discoloration is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.

4. When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.

5. A client has been prescribed Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methotrexate is hepatotoxic, and avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent liver damage. However, Option A (Take this medication with food to prevent nausea) could also be correct, as Methotrexate commonly causes nausea, and taking it with food can help alleviate this side effect. However, the most important instruction is to avoid alcohol due to the risk of liver toxicity.

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