Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The available heparin injection is 20,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 1 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose / Concentration = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL. Since the volume needs to be rounded up to the nearest tenth, the correct answer is 0.8 mL. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect because it does not account for rounding up the volume. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the precise calculation based on the given concentration and desired dose.

2. A client has a prescription for Clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if you experience dry mouth.
• B. Take the medication at the same time each day.
• C. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
• D. Avoid drinking orange juice while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Taking Clonidine at the same time each day is crucial to ensure consistent blood levels and effectively manage blood pressure. Consistency in timing helps optimize the medication's effectiveness in controlling hypertension.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of the ACE Inhibitor (Captopril)?

• A. Rash
• B. Angioedema
• C. Cough
• D. Congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Congestion is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors such as Captopril. ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry, persistent cough due to bradykinin accumulation, rash, and angioedema, but congestion is not typically listed as a side effect.

4. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.

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