a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving long term aspirin therapy the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving long term aspirin therapy the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.

2. A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with GAD should include encouraging the client to express their feelings, teaching relaxation techniques, and promoting regular physical activity. Caffeine should be avoided as it can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Stimulants like caffeine can increase feelings of restlessness and nervousness, making it counterproductive in managing anxiety. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting emotional expression, relaxation, and physical well-being, respectively. Choice D, encouraging the use of caffeine, is incorrect as it can worsen anxiety symptoms rather than alleviate them.

3. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.

4. Which of the following bones is a component of the appendicular skeleton?

Correct answer: Symphysis pubis

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Symphysis pubis. The symphysis pubis is a component of the appendicular skeleton, specifically part of the pelvic girdle. The xiphoid process (Choice A) is part of the axial skeleton, located at the lower end of the sternum. The sacrum (Choice C) is also part of the axial skeleton, forming the posterior part of the pelvis. The sternum (Choice D) is part of the axial skeleton, located in the center of the chest.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A weight gain of 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure in clients taking digoxin. This rapid weight gain could be due to fluid accumulation, a common sign of heart failure exacerbation. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and not directly indicative of worsening heart failure in this context, making them less urgent to report compared to the significant weight gain.

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