Nursing Elites

1. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

• A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
• B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
• C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
• D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

• A. Colchicine
• B. Hydroxychloroquine
• C. Auranofin
• D. Duloxetine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Duloxetine. Duloxetine is commonly used to treat fibromyalgia as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It is also indicated for depression and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, and Auranofin are not typically prescribed for fibromyalgia. Colchicine is primarily used to treat gout, Hydroxychloroquine for conditions like malaria and rheumatoid arthritis, and Auranofin for rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Headache
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common adverse effect of lisinopril is a persistent dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a cough. Monitoring for a persistent cough is essential as it may indicate a serious adverse effect that requires medical attention. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of lisinopril. Headache (Choice C) and dry mouth (Choice D) are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication over 5 minutes.
• B. Administer a dose of Naloxone prior to giving the Hydromorphone.
• C. Assess the client's blood pressure prior to administration.
• D. Inject the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional preparing to administer IV Hydromorphone to a client is to administer the medication over 5 minutes. This slow administration is crucial to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Administering the medication rapidly can lead to adverse effects. Option B, administering Naloxone prior to Hydromorphone, is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not as a routine pre-medication. Option C, assessing the client's blood pressure before administration, is important but not the immediate action to take to reduce adverse effects of Hydromorphone. Option D, injecting the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue, is incorrect as Hydromorphone is meant for intravenous administration for rapid onset of action.

5. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

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