ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?
- A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
- B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
- C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
- D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.
2. You believe that you are working harder than other nurses and that you take care of patients that are more complex. You are angry that other staff nurses have less complex and lower acuity patients, but you __________ .
- A. Avoid discussing the situation because you do not want to be perceived as a complainer.
- B. Know that you need to discuss the inequity with the nurse manager because you are resenting the work and becoming more dissatisfied in your job
- C. A & B
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Professionals communicate their views in a respectful and direct manner. In discussing the situation with the manager, professionals may gain insights about their reactions to stress and how they can cope with the intense demands of the healthcare environment. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding discussing the situation does not address the underlying issue and may lead to increased frustration. Choice B is correct as it emphasizes the importance of addressing the inequity with the nurse manager to find a constructive solution. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide any guidance on how to handle the situation effectively.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?
- A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
- B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
- D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.
4. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client, what is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. aPTT
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. INR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox), it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count that can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring the platelet count allows for early detection of this potential complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aPTT, Hemoglobin, and INR are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically when administering enoxaparin.
5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
- C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.
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