a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.

2. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

4. A client has a prescription for Erythromycin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.' Erythromycin is known to cause Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, which can be severe. Instructing the client to report any persistent diarrhea to their healthcare provider promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Erythromycin with food is generally recommended to reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most critical instruction. Expecting urine to turn dark yellow is not a common side effect of Erythromycin. Taking Erythromycin with a full glass of milk is not necessary and may not be appropriate for all clients, especially those with lactose intolerance or dairy allergies.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

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