ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase fluid intake.
- C. Expect reddish-orange urine.
- D. Avoid high-protein foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.
2. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 22 gtt/min
- B. 24 gtt/min
- C. 20 gtt/min
- D. 18 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.
4. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hemorrhagic stroke
- B. Thromboembolic stroke
- C. Iron deficiency anemia
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
- C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access