Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not a side effect of the ACE Inhibitor (Captopril)?

• A. Rash
• B. Angioedema
• C. Cough
• D. Congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Congestion is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors such as Captopril. ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry, persistent cough due to bradykinin accumulation, rash, and angioedema, but congestion is not typically listed as a side effect.

2. A client has a new prescription for Diltiazem. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication may cause dry mouth.
• B. You should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
• D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about Diltiazem is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of diltiazem in the blood, leading to potential toxicity and increased side effects. It is important for the client to be aware of this interaction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication. Option A is incorrect because dry mouth is not a common side effect of Diltiazem. Option C is incorrect because Diltiazem is actually used to treat rapid heart rates. Option D is unrelated to the medication and not relevant to the teaching.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Previous history of thromboembolism
• B. Concurrent use of an antacid
• C. History of bronchial asthma
• D. Recent weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma. Reporting a history of bronchial asthma to the provider is crucial as it would prompt a review of the medication prescription to avoid potential adverse effects and consider alternative treatment options.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.

5. A client is receiving chemotherapy and has a prescription for ondansetron IV for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Tremors
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Ondansetron can cause tremors as an adverse effect. Monitoring for tremors is essential as it can indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Hypotension (choice A) and bradycardia (choice B) are not commonly associated with ondansetron. Urinary retention (choice D) is also not a typical adverse effect of ondansetron, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.

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