Nursing Elites

1. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Hydrochlorothiazide is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance, potentially causing dehydration. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. Therefore, it is essential for the client to be vigilant in recognizing these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Hydrochlorothiazide at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its effects or side effects. Avoiding foods high in potassium may be necessary for some medications, but it is not the primary concern with Hydrochlorothiazide. Taking this medication on an empty stomach is not a requirement and may vary depending on individual preferences or healthcare provider instructions.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

3. A client informs the nurse about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Warfarin
• C. Digoxin
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Warfarin. Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba due to the potential interaction. Gingko Biloba can suppress coagulation and increase the risk of bleeding or hemorrhage when taken with anticoagulants like Warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A), Digoxin (choice C), and Lisinopril (choice D) do not have significant interactions with Gingko Biloba.

4. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

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