ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Hydrochlorothiazide is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance, potentially causing dehydration. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. Therefore, it is essential for the client to be vigilant in recognizing these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Hydrochlorothiazide at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its effects or side effects. Avoiding foods high in potassium may be necessary for some medications, but it is not the primary concern with Hydrochlorothiazide. Taking this medication on an empty stomach is not a requirement and may vary depending on individual preferences or healthcare provider instructions.
2. A client is to receive Pamidronate for bone pain related to cancer. What precaution should the nurse take during the administration of Pamidronate?
- A. Inspect the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site.
- B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
- C. Instruct the client to lie down for 30 minutes after oral administration.
- D. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis for 20 minutes after intramuscular injection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pamidronate is typically administered through IV infusion, which can cause irritation to veins. The nurse should frequently assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during the administration to promptly detect any potential complications related to the infusion. Inspecting the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site (Choice A) is not directly related to IV infusion. Instructing the client to lie down after oral administration (Choice C) is not necessary for IV administration. Monitoring for signs of anaphylaxis after an intramuscular injection (Choice D) is not relevant for an IV infusion of Pamidronate.
3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. It is characterized by a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is crucial to detect neutropenia early. The nurse should also educate the client on recognizing signs of infection and promptly reporting them to the healthcare provider for timely intervention. Hypokalemia is a potential adverse effect of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of Captopril.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?
- A. Use an electric shaver to remove excess hair on the extremity.
- B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
- C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
- D. Instruct the client to keep the extremity still during the procedure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Spironolactone
- B. Calcium channel blockers
- C. Loop diuretics
- D. ACE inhibitors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.
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