a nurse is caring for a client who received prochlorperazine 4 hr ago the client reports spasms of his face the nurse should anticipate a prescriptio
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.

2. Which of the following drugs is associated with extreme photosensitivity as a reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetracycline is known to cause extreme photosensitivity reactions, making individuals more sensitive to sunlight and increasing the risk of severe sunburn. It is essential for patients taking tetracycline to protect themselves from excessive sun exposure to prevent adverse reactions.

3. A client has a new prescription for Losartan. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I should monitor my blood pressure weekly.' Monitoring blood pressure regularly is crucial for clients taking Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to ensure effective management of hypertension. This medication works to dilate blood vessels, lowering blood pressure, so monitoring is essential to assess its effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can be harmful due to the potassium-sparing effect of Losartan, taking the medication with milk is not recommended, and adherence to the prescribed daily dosing schedule is necessary for optimal therapeutic outcomes.

4. A client is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated by a decrease in blood pressure. Lisinopril works by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Monitoring and achieving a decrease in blood pressure is a key outcome when managing hypertension with lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lisinopril is not intended to increase HDL cholesterol, prevent bipolar manic episodes, or improve sexual function. Therefore, the correct outcome indicating the therapeutic effect of lisinopril is a decrease in blood pressure.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are often prescribed epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing the body's demand for iron to support this process. Therefore, clients taking epoetin alfa should be advised to increase their dietary intake of iron-rich foods to meet the increased demand and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, potassium and sodium intake may need to be restricted in clients with chronic kidney disease to manage electrolyte balance and blood pressure.

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