a nurse is preparing to administer iv acyclovir to a client who has herpes zoster which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023

1. When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.

3. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.

4. A healthcare provider is educating a client who has a prescription for Theophylline. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid caffeine while taking this medication.' Caffeine can increase the risk of theophylline toxicity as it competes for the same metabolic pathways. Consuming caffeine while on theophylline can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because although maintaining adequate hydration is important, it is not a specific instruction related to theophylline use. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of the medication administration should be based on the healthcare provider's recommendation and the client's individual needs. Choice D is incorrect as increased appetite is not a common side effect associated with theophylline.

5. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified as Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is important for the client to inform the provider if they plan to become pregnant because the medication may need to be adjusted or changed to ensure the safety of the fetus. This communication allows for appropriate monitoring and adjustments to be made to the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as zolpidem is a short-acting medication, and it does not require a full 6 hours for sleep. Choice D is incorrect because zolpidem can be taken with or without food, so taking it with a bedtime snack is not contraindicated.

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