Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?

• A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
• D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The interaction between oxycodone and ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). They work through different mechanisms but complement each other in pain management. When taken together, they can enhance the pain-relieving effects of each other, providing better pain relief for the client.

2. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
• B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
• C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
• D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.

3. A client is taking Paroxetine to treat PTSD and reports teeth grinding at night. Which interventions should the nurse implement to manage Bruxism? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Concurrent administration of buspirone.
• B. Administration of a different SSRI.
• C. Use of a mouth guard.
• D. Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interventions to manage Bruxism associated with Paroxetine use include A: Concurrent administration of buspirone. Buspirone can help alleviate the side effect of Bruxism. Additionally, C: Use of a mouth guard is recommended to prevent oral damage from teeth grinding. B: Administration of a different SSRI is not necessary since the issue is specific to Paroxetine. D: Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication may be considered in severe cases, but the initial step should be to add buspirone to address the Bruxism caused by Paroxetine.

4. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

• A. Cefaclor
• B. Cefazolin
• C. Cefepime
• D. Cephalexin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

5. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

Similar Questions