ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?
- A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
- B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
- C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
- D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The interaction between oxycodone and ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). They work through different mechanisms but complement each other in pain management. When taken together, they can enhance the pain-relieving effects of each other, providing better pain relief for the client.
2. The client with angina is being discharged to home. The nurse is instructing the client on dietary changes. What should be included in this teaching?
- A. Decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake.
- B. There are no dietary restrictions for a person diagnosed with angina.
- C. Limit smoking and increase protein and sugar intake.
- D. Increase fruits, vegetables, and foods high in cholesterol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake. These dietary changes can help manage angina by reducing the workload on the heart and preventing further plaque buildup in the arteries. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as dietary restrictions for angina typically involve reducing salt, fat, and alcohol intake, rather than increasing sugar or cholesterol intake.
3. When caring for a client with a wound infection, which action should the nurse perform first in the plan of care?
- A. Administer antibiotic medication.
- B. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
- C. Review WBC laboratory findings.
- D. Apply a dressing to the wound.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to obtain a wound specimen for culture before initiating antibiotic therapy. This step is crucial to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic treatment. Reviewing WBC laboratory findings and applying a wound dressing are important steps, but obtaining a wound specimen for culture takes precedence as it guides appropriate antibiotic therapy by identifying the causative organism.
4. In which of the following cases is Lansoprazole not used?
- A. Gastritis
- B. Peptic Ulcers
- C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
- D. Thalamus hypertrophy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor mainly used to treat conditions related to the stomach, such as gastritis, peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Thalamus hypertrophy is not a condition that Lansoprazole is indicated for; it is used for gastrointestinal issues and not neurological conditions.
5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Take this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it's essential to avoid salt substitutes that may contain potassium which can further elevate potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once daily in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can exacerbate hyperkalemia when taking Lisinopril. Choice D is incorrect as Lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach, not with food.
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