ATI RN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which of the following are core functions of public health?
- A. Assessment
- B. Policy development
- C. Assurance
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All the options listed - Assessment, Policy development, and Assurance - are core functions of public health. Assessment involves collecting and analyzing data to identify health problems, Policy development focuses on creating and implementing policies to address those problems, and Assurance ensures that necessary health services are provided to the community.
2. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Critical pathways have unlimited timeframes for completion.
- B. Critical pathways are designed to decrease health care costs.
- C. Patients follow the critical pathway if variances occur.
- D. Budgets are used to create the critical pathway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.
3. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of bone fractures
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. Which finding indicates that the propranolol is effective?
- A. The client reports an increase in weight
- B. The client has a decrease in blood pressure
- C. The client reports an increase in energy
- D. The client's respiratory rate has increased
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a decrease in blood pressure is an expected outcome when propranolol, a beta-blocker, is effectively managing hyperthyroidism. Propranolol helps control symptoms such as tachycardia and hypertension associated with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased energy, and an increased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of propranolol's effectiveness in treating hyperthyroidism.
5. When prioritizing client care after receiving change-of-shift report, which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
- A. A client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport
- B. A client who has a prescription for discharge
- C. A client who received oral pain medication 30 minutes ago
- D. A client who told an assistive personnel he is short of breath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses being short of breath, it may indicate a serious condition requiring immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. This client should be seen first to assess the severity of the situation and initiate appropriate interventions. The other options, such as awaiting transport for an x-ray, having a prescription for discharge, or receiving oral pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not present immediate life-threatening concerns compared to a client experiencing shortness of breath.
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