Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. Malaria
• C. Cancer
• D. Heart disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A non-communicable disease is a medical condition or disease that is not caused by infectious agents and cannot be transmitted from person to person. Cancer fits this definition as it is a non-communicable disease that typically arises from genetic mutations or environmental factors, rather than being contagious like tuberculosis or malaria.

2. In evaluating the healthcare provided, which of the following vital statistics in the communities served will BEST indicate their health status?

• A. 0 crude death rate for the year 2012
• B. 50% (Swaroop's) index for the year 2011
• C. 0 infant mortality rate for the year 2011
• D. 0 crude birth rate for the year 2011

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The infant mortality rate is a critical indicator of a community's health status as it reflects the impact of economic and social conditions on the health of mothers and infants, as well as the effectiveness of healthcare systems. A low infant mortality rate signifies better overall health outcomes and healthcare access within a community.

3. Which task will be most helpful in meeting the public health agency’s goals?

• A. Complete staff evaluations in preparation for individual meetings to plan their agency and individual goals for the next year.
• B. Actively participate in community agencies’ collaborative action plan to meet the community’s health goals for the year.
• C. Meet with the college of nursing faculty to finalize student objectives and schedules for the next semester.
• D. Teach a free course on healthful living for community residents.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Actively participating in community agencies’ collaborative action plan to meet the community’s health goals is the most helpful task in meeting the public health agency’s goals. By engaging with external partners and working towards the health goals of the community as a whole, the agency can have a more significant impact on public health outcomes.

4. Which best describes a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Providing rehabilitation services
• B. Screening for early signs of disease
• C. Educating the public about healthy lifestyles
• D. Offering health education workshops

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing rehabilitation services. Tertiary prevention involves interventions that focus on managing and improving the outcomes of existing conditions. Rehabilitation services fall under tertiary prevention as they aim to help individuals recover and manage long-term health issues. Screening for early signs of disease (Choice B) is part of secondary prevention, while educating the public about healthy lifestyles (Choice C) and offering health education workshops (Choice D) typically fall under primary prevention strategies.

5. Why is cultural competence important in health promotion?

• A. Ensuring that health messages are tailored to diverse populations
• B. Providing translation services for non-English speakers
• C. Training health workers on cultural sensitivity
• D. Standardizing health education materials

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cultural competence in health promotion is crucial as it involves tailoring health messages to suit the diverse cultural backgrounds of populations. This ensures that the information provided is not only relevant but also effectively communicated to different groups, promoting better health outcomes and reducing disparities.

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