which of the following describes passive immunity
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3

1. Which of the following describes passive immunity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.

2. Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Poorly managed hypertension primarily affects the heart and kidneys. The heart is at risk of conditions like heart failure due to the increased workload from elevated blood pressure. The kidneys can suffer damage from longstanding hypertension, leading to kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the bladder, urethra, brain, skin, stomach, and intestines are not the primary organs affected by poorly managed hypertension.

3. In osteoporosis, what is the expected therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in strengthening bones, reducing the risk of fractures, and improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents bone loss. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily decrease the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

4. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.

5. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

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