ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. Which of the following describes passive immunity?
- A. Vaccination against the disease
- B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
- C. Cuts or wounds that are infected and heal
- D. Having the disease in question
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.
2. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Right lower quadrant cramping
- B. Severe bloody diarrhea
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Mostly affects the rectum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right lower quadrant cramping. Crohn's disease commonly presents with abdominal pain, particularly in the right lower quadrant. Choice B, severe bloody diarrhea, is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, are not typical symptoms of Crohn's disease. Choice D is incorrect as Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, not just the rectum.
3. A patient taking hormonal contraceptives will soon turn 35 years of age. She is moderately obese and has smoked for 15 years. Which of the following is most important?
- A. Begin an exercise regimen.
- B. Begin smoking cessation.
- C. Begin daily aspirin therapy.
- D. Begin taking a loop diuretic to aid weight loss.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important action for a patient taking hormonal contraceptives, who is nearing 35 years of age, moderately obese, and has a history of smoking for 15 years, is to begin smoking cessation. Women over 35, especially smokers, are at an increased risk of blood clots and cardiovascular issues when using hormonal contraceptives. Smoking cessation is crucial to reduce this risk. Beginning an exercise regimen may be beneficial for overall health but is not as critical as stopping smoking in this scenario. Daily aspirin therapy or taking a loop diuretic are not indicated in this situation and may not address the primary risk associated with hormonal contraceptives and smoking.
4. A client asks a nurse about the cause of Parkinson's disease. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a lack of dopamine in the brain, which affects movement.
- B. Parkinson's disease is caused by an excess of acetylcholine in the brain, leading to tremors and rigidity.
- C. Parkinson's disease is caused by an autoimmune response that attacks the nervous system.
- D. Parkinson's disease is caused by a bacterial infection that needs to be treated with antibiotics.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, which results in the characteristic motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Choice B is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by an excess of acetylcholine. Choice C is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not an autoimmune disorder. Choice D is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by a bacterial infection and cannot be treated with antibiotics.
5. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?
- A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
- B. Bacterial invasion
- C. Impaired arterial blood supply
- D. Metaplastic cellular changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.
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