ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?
- A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
- B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
- C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
- D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.
2. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.
3. What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body?
- A. Poor dietary habits
- B. Administration of statin medication
- C. Interruption of blood flow to the brain
- D. Injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form in the body due to injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries. When the endothelium is damaged, it triggers an inflammatory response that leads to the accumulation of fats, cholesterol, and other substances, forming plaques. These plaques can narrow the arteries, reducing blood flow and potentially leading to serious complications like heart attacks or strokes. Poor dietary habits (choice A) can contribute to the development of atherosclerosis by promoting the buildup of plaque-forming substances in the blood, but the direct cause is the injury to the endothelium. Administration of statin medication (choice B) is actually a treatment for high cholesterol and aims to reduce the risk of plaque formation. Interruption of blood flow to the brain (choice C) is more related to conditions like ischemic stroke rather than the primary cause of atherosclerotic plaque formation.
4. A patient is receiving chloroquine (Aralen) for extraintestinal amebiasis. Which of the following medications should be administered with chloroquine?
- A. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)
- B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- C. Metyrosine (Demser)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metronidazole (Flagyl). When treating extraintestinal amebiasis, chloroquine is often used in combination with metronidazole to ensure the eradication of the parasite. Metronidazole helps to target the infection more effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin) is another antiprotozoal agent but is not typically used in combination with chloroquine for amebiasis. Metyrosine (Demser) is used in the management of pheochromocytoma, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug, neither of which are indicated for extraintestinal amebiasis.
5. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Risk for decreased level of consciousness
- C. Risk for nephrotoxicity
- D. Risk for hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.
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