the administration of benzene hexachloride lindane for the treatment of scabies is applied in small quantities what is the rationale for instructing t
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

2. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.

3. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.

4. What key contraindication should the nurse emphasize to a patient prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific contraindication for taking sildenafil with food, having a history of hypertension, or taking it with grapefruit juice. The main concern is the concurrent use of nitrates with sildenafil.

5. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.

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