Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary therapeutic action of tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow. Tamsulosin, a medication commonly prescribed for BPH, works by selectively blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the prostate, causing relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation reduces the constriction in these areas, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms such as hesitancy, urgency, frequency, and weak stream. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin primarily acts by relaxing muscles rather than directly increasing urine flow. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function.

2. A patient is being administered chemotherapeutic agents for the treatment of cancer. Which of the following blood cells will be stimulated by the colony-stimulating factors in response to the effects of the chemotherapy?

• A. White blood cells
• B. Red blood cells
• C. Phagocytes
• D. Myocardial cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is White blood cells. Colony-stimulating factors stimulate the production of white blood cells in response to the effects of chemotherapy, as it can lead to myelosuppression. Red blood cells are not directly stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Phagocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses, but they are not specifically stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Myocardial cells are cardiac muscle cells and are not directly involved in the response to chemotherapy-induced myelosuppression.

3. Which of the following is found in clients with Parkinson’s disease?

• A. Mobility and functioning
• B. The liver and kidneys
• C. Too much dopamine in the brain
• D. Skeletal muscle flaccidity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Too much dopamine in the brain. Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, not an excess. This deficiency leads to the motor symptoms associated with the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Mobility and functioning are affected in Parkinson's disease due to the lack of dopamine, not an excess. The liver and kidneys are not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Skeletal muscle flaccidity is not typically a primary symptom of Parkinson's disease, which is more characterized by rigidity and tremors.

4. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
• B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. The patient's viral load
• D. The patient's CD4 count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

5. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?

• A. Testosterone
• B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
• C. Estrogen
• D. Lactate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.

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