ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. What is the primary therapeutic action of tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
- B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
- C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
- D. Improvement in erectile function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow. Tamsulosin, a medication commonly prescribed for BPH, works by selectively blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the prostate, causing relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation reduces the constriction in these areas, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms such as hesitancy, urgency, frequency, and weak stream. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin primarily acts by relaxing muscles rather than directly increasing urine flow. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function.
2. Although stress exposure initiates integrated responses by multiple systems, which system first activates the most important changes?
- A. Pulmonary
- B. Gastrointestinal
- C. Neuroendocrine
- D. Cardiovascular
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the Neuroendocrine system. When the body is exposed to stress, the neuroendocrine system plays a crucial role in initiating the body's response. This system, particularly through the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, triggers a cascade of physiological responses to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while other systems like the cardiovascular and gastrointestinal systems also respond to stress, the neuroendocrine system is primarily responsible for the initial and significant changes in the body's stress response.
3. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?
- A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
- B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
- C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
- D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.
4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes
- B. Mumps
- C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
- D. Testicular trauma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.
5. When caring for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the disease the nurse is dealing with is an example of:
- A. Autoimmunity
- B. Alloimmunity
- C. Homoimmunity
- D. Alleimmunity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse is dealing with an autoimmune disease. In autoimmune diseases like SLE, the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues. Choice A, 'Autoimmunity,' is the correct answer because SLE is an example of the immune system attacking self-antigens, leading to tissue damage and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Alloimmunity refers to the immune response against foreign antigens from members of the same species, homoimmunity is not a recognized term in immunology, and alleimmunity is not a valid term in this context.
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