Nursing Elites

1. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

• A. White blood cell count with differential
• B. RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
• C. INR and aPTT
• D. d-dimer and C-reactive protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

2. How does influenza immunization produce immunity?

• A. The virus from the vaccine remains in the body until the end of the season
• B. An attenuated virus causes immune system suppression and triggers immunity
• C. The body identifies the virus and develops antibodies against the virus
• D. The vaccine remains in the injection site and produces immune cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Influenza immunization works by introducing a weakened or inactivated form of the virus into the body, allowing the immune system to recognize it as foreign. This recognition triggers the production of antibodies specific to the virus. Choice A is incorrect as the virus in the vaccine does not remain in the body until the end of the season. Choice B is incorrect as an attenuated virus does not cause immune system suppression but rather stimulates an immune response. Choice D is incorrect because the vaccine does not stay at the injection site but rather prompts a systemic immune response throughout the body.

3. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

• A. Urinalysis
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Cystoscopy
• D. Intravenous pyelogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

4. Which of the following statements describes an active cellular membrane exchange process?

• A. Sodium moving out of cells and potassium moving into cells
• B. The movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration
• C. The movement of insulin using a protein to travel across the cell membrane
• D. Oxygen moving across the pulmonary capillaries to an area of high carbon dioxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In active transport, energy is expended to move substances against their concentration gradient. Sodium moving out of cells and potassium moving into cells is an example of active transport because it requires energy to pump these ions across the cell membrane against their concentration gradients. Choices B, C, and D describe passive processes where substances move along their concentration gradients without the input of energy.

5. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?

• A. Cryptococcus neoformans
• B. Candida albicans
• C. Aspergillus
• D. Dermatophytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.

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