ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
- B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
- C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
- D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.
2. A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Oral contraceptives can cause weight loss and increased energy levels.
- B. Oral contraceptives can cause increased appetite and weight gain.
- C. Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.
- D. Oral contraceptives have no side effects.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.
3. What lab results would be noted in a client with leukocytosis?
- A. Increased white blood cell count
- B. Increased platelet count
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Decreased platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Leukocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated white blood cell count, typically in response to infection or inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is an increased white blood cell count (Choice A). Increased platelet count (Choice B) is not a typical finding in leukocytosis. Choices C and D, decreased white blood cell count and decreased platelet count respectively, are opposite to what would be expected in leukocytosis and are therefore incorrect.
4. What symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Dyspnea on exertion
- B. Normal lung sounds
- C. Normal arterial blood gases
- D. Onset of the disease during young adulthood
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea on exertion. COPD typically manifests with symptoms like dyspnea on exertion due to impaired lung function. This symptom is a result of the airways being obstructed and the lungs not being able to expel air effectively. Choices B and C are incorrect because in COPD, abnormal lung sounds such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds are often heard upon auscultation, and arterial blood gases are usually abnormal, showing low oxygen levels and high carbon dioxide levels. Choice D is incorrect as COPD is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over 40 who have a history of smoking or exposure to lung irritants.
5. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?
- A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
- D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.
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