a 57 year old male presents to his primary care provider for red face hands feet ears and headache and drowsiness a blood smear reveals an increased n a 57 year old male presents to his primary care provider for red face hands feet ears and headache and drowsiness a blood smear reveals an increased n
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

2. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

3. What is a major feature of the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) recommended for the treatment of high blood cholesterol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Limiting saturated fat intake to less than 7% of energy intake.' This is a central feature of the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) recommended for treating high blood cholesterol. Saturated fats can increase low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, a significant risk factor for heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because while it is recommended to limit cholesterol intake, it's not suggested to avoid all foods containing cholesterol entirely in the TLC. Choice B is also incorrect as although reducing sodium intake is beneficial for controlling blood pressure, it's not specifically targeted in the TLC for managing high cholesterol. Lastly, while limiting total fat intake is a healthy guideline, it's not as specific or effective as limiting saturated fat intake, making choice C also incorrect.

4. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The client will live as normal a life as possible.' For a client with sickle cell anemia, the primary goal of care is to promote a good quality of life by managing symptoms, preventing crises, and enhancing overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on a specific action rather than the overall goal of care. Option B is important but not the primary goal; compliance is a means to achieve better health outcomes. Option D is also important but does not address the holistic approach of helping the client maintain a normal lifestyle despite their condition.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with Crohn's disease often experience fatty stools (steatorrhea) due to malabsorption of fats. This occurs because the inflammation caused by Crohn's disease can affect the small intestine, impairing the body's ability to absorb nutrients. Bloody diarrhea is more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of Crohn's disease; instead, weight loss is more common due to malabsorption and decreased appetite. High fever can occur during acute flare-ups but is not a primary finding of Crohn's disease.

Similar Questions

What is the most important action for the nurse to take after finding a patient on the floor who reports, 'I fell out of bed'?
In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
Which term conceptualizes that the greater the myocardial fiber stretch, within physiologic limits, the more forceful the ventricular contraction, thereby increasing stroke volume?
A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?
Colleen found herself attracted to her psychology instructor. She would frequently go by his office just to be near him. When he didn't respond to her advances, Colleen eventually told him that she had thoughts of killing herself so that he would spend time trying to counsel her. What personality disorder best describes Colleen's thinking and behavior?

Access More Features

ATI Basic

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
    • 30 days access @ $69.99

ATI Basic

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
    • 90 days access @ $149.99