Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 60/min
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Weight gain of 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) in 24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A weight gain of 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure in clients taking digoxin. This rapid weight gain could be due to fluid accumulation, a common sign of heart failure exacerbation. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and not directly indicative of worsening heart failure in this context, making them less urgent to report compared to the significant weight gain.

3. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Check for abnormal breath sounds
• C. Check for pitting edema
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing.
• B. Suction the tracheostomy.
• C. Remove the inner cannula.
• D. Clean the stoma with sterile saline.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.

5. A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the drainage system below the client's chest.
• C. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the collection device at the level of the client's chest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.

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