which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundus that is deviated to the right may indicate a full bladder, which should be addressed postpartum. Choice A is incorrect because red lochia with small clots is expected during the early postpartum period. Choice B is incorrect as the fundus should be firm and midline, not at the umbilicus. Choice D is incorrect as perineal pain and swelling are common postpartum findings that do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. Sequential compression devices help prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow in the legs. Massaging the client's legs every 2 hours (choice A) may dislodge a clot if present, leading to a higher risk of embolism. Instructing the client to sit with the legs crossed (choice B) can impede blood flow and increase the risk of DVT. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) is not indicated for preventing DVT, as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, not to prevent blood clots.

4. Which diagnostic test is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST), is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection. This test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin protein derivative under the top layer of the skin and then evaluating the immune system's response to the protein. A positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Chest X-rays are used to detect abnormalities in the lungs caused by TB but are not confirmatory. Sputum culture is used to identify the presence of TB bacteria in the sputum. MRIs are not typically used as a primary diagnostic tool for TB.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In hypovolemia, the body responds to decreased fluid volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain adequate circulation. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not expected in hypovolemia since the heart rate typically increases to compensate for the reduced blood volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is unlikely in hypovolemia as the decreased fluid volume leads to decreased pressure. A bounding pulse (Choice D) is more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or fever, not specifically with hypovolemia.

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