a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.

2. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

3. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor heart rate daily.' When a client is prescribed digoxin, it is essential to monitor heart rate daily because digoxin can cause bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate regularly allows the client to promptly identify any signs of bradycardia and seek medical attention if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with food, avoiding grapefruit juice, and increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects or monitoring parameters of digoxin therapy.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a potential risk for an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.

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