ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching about digoxin administration to the parents of a toddler with heart failure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Limit your child's potassium intake while taking this medication.
- B. You can mix the medication with a half-cup of your child's favorite juice.
- C. Do not repeat the dose if your child vomits within one hour after taking the medication.
- D. Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about digoxin administration is to have the child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication. Water helps flush down the medication, preventing irritation in the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin may interact with potassium levels, but strict restriction is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect as medications should not be mixed with juices unless specified by the healthcare provider due to possible interactions. Choice C is incorrect because if a child vomits after taking digoxin, the dose should not be repeated to avoid double dosing.
2. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.
- B. You should drink ginger ale with your meals.
- C. You should lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
- D. You should avoid eating between meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Bananas
- C. White bread
- D. Processed meats
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.
4. A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?
- A. Keep track of calorie intake for food and beverages.
- B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
- C. Schedule meals at 6-hour intervals.
- D. Provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.
5. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- C. Check for pitting edema
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.
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