a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy which of the following findings should the nurse report immediat
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods when taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges can help maintain adequate potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products. Choice C is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, the general instruction is not to limit fluids to prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually best taken during the day to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week is an indication of fluid retention, which is concerning in a client with preeclampsia. This can be a sign of worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. High blood pressure (option A) is expected in preeclampsia, a urine output of 30 mL/hr (option C) is decreased but not as urgent as the weight gain in this scenario, and a respiratory rate of 16/min (option D) is within normal limits.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should eat a snack when their blood glucose level is low, typically below 70-100 mg/dL, not when it is high. Eating a snack when the blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL can exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice A is correct as checking blood glucose levels regularly is important in managing diabetes. Choice C is also correct as adherence to prescribed insulin therapy is crucial. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity can help lower blood glucose levels, especially when they are above the target range.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.

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