ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
- B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
- C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
- D. Use a moisture barrier ointment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a craniotomy. Which of the following findings indicates the client is developing diabetes insipidus?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct finding indicating the client is developing diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of diluted urine due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone. This results in increased urine output (polyuria) despite adequate fluid intake. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus but can be seen in other conditions. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperglycemia (choice D) are also not typical findings of diabetes insipidus.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert a tongue depressor into the client's mouth.
- B. Restrain the client's arms and legs.
- C. Turn the client onto their side.
- D. Place the client in a prone position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should turn the client onto their side. This action helps maintain an open airway by allowing saliva or any vomitus to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. Inserting a tongue depressor (choice A) is incorrect as it can cause injury to the client's mouth and is not recommended during a seizure. Restraining the client's arms and legs (choice B) can lead to physical harm and should be avoided. Placing the client in a prone position (choice D) is dangerous as it can obstruct the airway and hinder breathing, which is not suitable for a client experiencing a seizure.
5. A patient is scheduled to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
- C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
- D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride is crucial before administering packed RBCs as it prevents hemolysis and ensures the safe transfusion of blood. Using a smaller 20- to 22-gauge IV catheter is recommended for packed RBCs to prevent hemolysis due to the small tubing size and faster flow rate. Obtaining filterless IV tubing is incorrect as blood products should be administered through a specialized filter to prevent potential clots or contaminants from reaching the patient. Placing blood in the warmer for an hour is unnecessary and could lead to overheating, potentially causing harm to the patient.
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