ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
2. A nurse is providing teaching about digoxin administration to the parents of a toddler with heart failure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Limit your child's potassium intake while taking this medication.
- B. You can mix the medication with a half-cup of your child's favorite juice.
- C. Do not repeat the dose if your child vomits within one hour after taking the medication.
- D. Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about digoxin administration is to have the child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication. Water helps flush down the medication, preventing irritation in the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin may interact with potassium levels, but strict restriction is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect as medications should not be mixed with juices unless specified by the healthcare provider due to possible interactions. Choice C is incorrect because if a child vomits after taking digoxin, the dose should not be repeated to avoid double dosing.
3. What is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath because it helps alleviate the patient's symptoms by improving oxygenation. Providing oxygen takes precedence over other actions such as repositioning the patient, checking for abnormal breath sounds, or assessing oxygen saturation. While these actions are important, ensuring the patient has an adequate oxygen supply is crucial in the initial management of shortness of breath.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
- C. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Dehydration causes gastroesophageal reflux.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
- B. Empty the drainage collection chamber when it is half full.
- C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
- D. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours to maintain patency.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.
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