Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

2. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Allow the child to handle the IV supplies to become familiar with them.
• B. Tell the child they will feel discomfort during the catheter insertion.
• C. Use a mummy restraint to hold the child during the catheter insertion.
• D. Require the parents to leave the room during the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because informing the child that they will feel discomfort during catheter insertion is crucial to prepare them for the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as children should not handle medical supplies. Choice C is inappropriate as using a restraint can cause anxiety and fear in the child. Choice D is not necessary as having parents present can provide comfort and support to the child during the procedure.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

• A. Paradoxical pulse
• B. Dependent edema
• C. Pericardial friction rub
• D. Substernal chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

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