Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
• B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
• C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

2. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
• B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
• C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
• D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

5. What is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's level of consciousness?

• A. Use the Glasgow Coma Scale
• B. Assess the patient's orientation
• C. Check pupillary response
• D. Monitor vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using the Glasgow Coma Scale. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating their eye response, verbal response, and motor response. This scale provides a numeric value that helps in determining the severity of brain injury or altered mental status. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while assessing the patient's orientation, checking pupillary response, and monitoring vital signs are important components of a comprehensive patient assessment, they do not specifically target the assessment of consciousness level, which is best done using the Glasgow Coma Scale.

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