a nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula which of the following findings should the nurse report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of a bruit. In a client with an arteriovenous fistula, the presence of a bruit (a humming sound) is an expected finding due to the high-pressure flow of blood through the fistula. Therefore, the absence of a bruit suggests a complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which should be reported for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a thrill upon palpation, distended blood vessels, and a swishing sound upon auscultation are expected findings in a client with an arteriovenous fistula and do not necessarily indicate a complication.

2. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine as the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock. Epinephrine is crucial in reversing the allergic reaction and restoring cardiovascular stability. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are not the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock but may be used as an adjunct therapy. Antihistamines (Choice C) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective as epinephrine in treating the systemic effects of anaphylaxis. Oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases of anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine takes precedence in the management of anaphylactic shock.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

4. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to promote airway clearance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential to promote airway clearance in pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Suctioning every 2 hours may be too frequent and can lead to airway trauma and irritation. Chest physiotherapy is not typically indicated for pneumonia unless there are specific complications. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary to maintain oxygen saturation but does not directly promote airway clearance.

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