which lab value is a priority for a patient with hiv

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

2. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Loss of sensation in the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Unrelieved pain is a key characteristic, indicating tissue ischemia due to increased pressure within a closed anatomic space. Pallor results from compromised blood flow, and pulselessness indicates severe ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized redness and swelling, fever and infection, and loss of sensation are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. What are the signs and symptoms of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP)?

A. Irritability, confusion, restlessness
B. Fatigue and SOB
C. Changes in pupillary response
D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritability, confusion, restlessness. These are common signs of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP) as they result from the increased pressure on brain tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and shortness of breath (SOB) are not typical symptoms of IICP. Changes in pupillary response can be seen in other conditions but are not specific to IICP. Elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP.

5. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. ST elevation
D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.