which lab value is a priority for a patient with hiv

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

2. What are the expected signs of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Fever, swelling, and redness
C. Muscle cramps and weakness
D. Redness and itching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to inadequate blood supply. This results in severe pain that is unrelieved by rest or medication, pallor due to compromised blood flow, and pulselessness as a late sign of severe ischemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fever, swelling, and redness are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Muscle cramps and weakness may occur due to other conditions, but they are not primary indicators of compartment syndrome. Redness and itching are also not commonly associated with compartment syndrome.

3. What are the characteristics of a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual onset over minutes to hours
B. Numbness on one side of the body
C. Associated with a loss of consciousness
D. Associated with seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thrombotic strokes typically have a gradual onset over minutes to hours as they result from a clot obstructing blood flow. Choice B, numbness on one side of the body, is more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke rather than specifically a thrombotic stroke. Choice C, loss of consciousness, is not a defining characteristic of a thrombotic stroke. Choice D, seizures and convulsions, are more commonly seen in hemorrhagic strokes rather than thrombotic strokes.

4. A patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse needs electrical intervention. What is the appropriate action?

A. Defibrillation
B. Synchronized cardioversion
C. Pacing
D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, the appropriate action is synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing is typically used for bradycardias. Medication administration may be considered in stable ventricular tachycardia cases but electrical intervention is preferred for immediate correction in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Consume high-calorie foods
C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
D. Drink fluids during meal time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.