Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
• C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

2. What are the expected manifestations in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure
• C. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestation in a patient experiencing a thrombotic stroke is sudden numbness or loss of function on one side of the body. This is due to the blockage of a blood vessel by a clot, leading to a lack of blood flow to a specific part of the brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Sudden loss of consciousness and seizure are more commonly associated with hemorrhagic strokes. Gradual onset of difficulty speaking is often seen in ischemic strokes affecting language areas, not specifically in thrombotic strokes. Loss of sensation in the affected limb is more indicative of sensory nerve damage rather than the motor deficits seen in thrombotic strokes.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?

• A. 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup
• B. 3 oz of lean cured ham
• C. 3 oz of chicken breast
• D. ½ cup of canned baked beans

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with hypertension, a low sodium diet is recommended to help control blood pressure. Among the food choices provided, the best option is 3 oz of chicken breast. Chicken breast is lean protein with lower sodium content compared to other choices. It is a healthier option for managing hypertension. Reconstituted dry onion soup (Choice A) and canned baked beans (Choice D) typically contain higher amounts of sodium, which can be detrimental for blood pressure management. Lean cured ham (Choice B) also tends to have a higher sodium content, making it less suitable for a client with hypertension.

5. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. A blockage in the chest tube
• C. Normal chest tube function
• D. Malfunction in the drainage system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This bubbling occurs when air is escaping through the tube and entering the water seal chamber. Choice B, a blockage in the chest tube, is incorrect as continuous bubbling does not suggest a blockage. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not an expected finding in a properly functioning chest tube. Choice D, a malfunction in the drainage system, is incorrect as continuous bubbling specifically points towards an air leak, not a general malfunction.

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