which lab value is a priority for a patient with hiv
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

2. A nurse in a rural community center is providing education to a group of clients about first aid interventions for snake bites. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to immobilize the affected extremity with a splint. This helps to slow the spread of venom by limiting movement. Applying an ice pack directly to the affected area (Choice A) is not recommended for snake bites as it could exacerbate tissue damage. Placing a tourniquet above and below the affected area (Choice C) is also not advised as it can lead to further complications. Elevating the affected extremity (Choice D) is not recommended for snake bites; keeping it below the level of the heart is more appropriate to reduce venom spread.

3. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This signifies that air is escaping from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system rather than being evacuated properly. An air leak can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax and requires immediate attention. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling does not indicate normal chest tube function, drainage in the chest tube, or a blocked chest tube.

4. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.

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