Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at a provider's office is interviewing a client who has multiple sclerosis and has been taking dantrolene for several months. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

• A. I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.
• B. I haven't gotten any colds, even though it is flu season.
• C. I feel like my nerve pain has improved.
• D. It is easier to urinate now.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.' Dantrolene is a medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and is commonly prescribed to treat muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Therefore, a reduction in muscle spasms frequency would be an indication of the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dantrolene is not indicated for preventing colds, improving nerve pain, or easing urination. The focus should be on the medication's intended purpose, which is to address muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis.

2. What are the expected signs in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Fever and infection
• C. Localized redness and swelling
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the classic signs include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs indicate compromised circulation and neurovascular function in the affected compartment. Fever and infection (Choice B) are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling (Choice C) can be seen in other conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Loss of sensation in the affected area (Choice D) may occur in some cases but is not as specific or consistent as unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness in diagnosing compartment syndrome.

3. What is the first medication to give to a patient with wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps to quickly open the airways, providing immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects but is not the initial medication for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that can be used for prevention but is not the first choice for acute symptom relief. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator with a narrow therapeutic window and more side effects compared to Albuterol, making it a less preferred option as the initial treatment.

4. What is the primary nursing action for a patient experiencing continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Clamp the chest tube
• C. Continue monitoring the chest tube
• D. Replace the chest tube system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicates an air leak. By tightening the connections of the chest tube system, the nurse can often resolve the issue by ensuring there are no loose connections allowing air to enter. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system are not appropriate actions in this situation. Clamping the tube can cause a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the system should only be considered if tightening the connections does not resolve the air leak.

5. What is the appropriate electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the correct electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse. This procedure delivers a synchronized electrical shock to the heart during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation (choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is typically used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in some cases, but in the scenario of ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred intervention.

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