ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse at a provider's office is interviewing a client who has multiple sclerosis and has been taking dantrolene for several months. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.
- B. I haven't gotten any colds, even though it is flu season.
- C. I feel like my nerve pain has improved.
- D. It is easier to urinate now.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.' Dantrolene is a medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and is commonly prescribed to treat muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Therefore, a reduction in muscle spasms frequency would be an indication of the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dantrolene is not indicated for preventing colds, improving nerve pain, or easing urination. The focus should be on the medication's intended purpose, which is to address muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis.
2. What is the priority action for a patient with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
- C. Administer aspirin
- D. Obtain IV access
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps dilate the blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle, which is crucial in the management of acute coronary syndrome. Checking cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing a heart attack but is not the priority over providing immediate relief to the patient's chest pain. Administering aspirin (choice C) is also important in acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the priority action for immediate pain relief. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is necessary for administering medications or fluids; however, in this scenario, providing sublingual nitroglycerin for prompt pain relief takes precedence.
3. A client who has burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. It is okay to not want to touch the burned areas of your body.
- B. Cosmetic surgery should be performed within the next year to be effective.
- C. Reconstructive surgery can completely restore your previous appearance.
- D. It could be helpful for you to attend a support group for people who have burn injuries.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals who have burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, shared experiences, and coping strategies for accepting their altered appearance. Choice A is not the best response as it does not offer proactive support. Choice B is not appropriate as the timing of cosmetic surgery should be determined by healthcare providers, not immediate. Choice C is misleading as reconstructive surgery may improve appearance but may not completely restore the previous look.
4. What are the expected symptoms of a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Severe headache and confusion
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' In a thrombotic stroke, a clot blocks a cerebral artery, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choice B, 'Sudden loss of consciousness,' is more characteristic of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice C, 'Severe headache and confusion,' are often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than thrombotic stroke. Choice D, 'Loss of sensation in the affected limb,' is not a typical symptom pattern for a thrombotic stroke, which usually presents with motor deficits.
5. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on ECG
- B. Prominent U waves on ECG
- C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
- D. ST elevation on ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
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