ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What should the healthcare provider do if a patient presents with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Administer aspirin
- C. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- D. Get IV access and auscultate heart sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority action in the treatment of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain. Aspirin can also be given to reduce clot formation, but nitroglycerin takes precedence in providing immediate relief. Obtaining cardiac enzymes and assessing heart sounds are important steps in the diagnostic process but do not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and prevent cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome.
2. What is the priority action if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During enema administration, if a patient experiences abdominal cramping, the priority action is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help relieve abdominal cramping by reducing the flow rate of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases of severe discomfort or complications, but adjusting the height of the solution container should be the initial response. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not address the immediate need to alleviate the cramping.
3. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
4. What should be the priority action when a patient is admitted with chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain IV access
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This is the priority action in treating chest pain associated with acute coronary syndrome as it helps to dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering nitroglycerin is crucial in managing the symptoms and potential complications of acute coronary syndrome. Obtaining IV access (Choice B) is important for administering medications and fluids but does not address the immediate symptom of chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes (Choice C) and administering aspirin (Choice D) are essential steps in the management of acute coronary syndrome, but they should follow the administration of nitroglycerin to address the immediate symptom and improve blood flow to the heart.
5. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
- C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.
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