a nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis which of the following diets should the nurse recommend

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

A. Low potassium diet
B. High fiber diet
C. Low fat diet
D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

2. What is the first action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Get IV access
C. Auscultate heart sounds
D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the initial priority action for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps in relieving symptoms and preventing further damage to the heart. Establishing IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome but are not the first actions to be taken. IV access may be needed for administering medications or fluids, auscultating heart sounds helps in assessing the heart's function, and obtaining cardiac enzymes aids in diagnosing a heart attack.

3. What are the expected signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
B. Severe headache and confusion
C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
D. Bradycardia and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, confusion, irritability. These are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) and require prompt intervention. Restlessness, confusion, and irritability are indicative of the brain's attempt to compensate for the rising pressure. Choice B is incorrect because severe headache alone is not specific to IICP and can be present in various conditions. Choice C is incorrect because elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP; instead, hypertension may be present in the compensatory stage. Choice D is incorrect as bradycardia and altered pupil response are signs of advanced IICP, not early signs. Monitoring and recognizing these early signs are crucial for timely intervention and preventing further complications.

4. What are the expected manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Loss of sensation in the affected extremity
C. Sudden loss of consciousness
D. Seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. Thrombotic strokes are caused by a clot forming in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms due to impaired blood flow to specific brain regions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of sensation, sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, and convulsions are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes. In a thrombotic stroke, the symptoms develop slowly over time, often over minutes to hours, and include manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body, along with other symptoms related to the affected brain area.

5. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the solution container
B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.