a nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis which of the following diets should the nurse recommend

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

A. Low potassium diet
B. High fiber diet
C. Low fat diet
D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

2. A patient reports abdominal cramping during an enema administration. What action should the nurse take?

A. Increase the flow of the enema
B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
C. Stop the enema procedure
D. Remove the enema tubing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during an enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the container helps to relieve cramping by slowing the flow of the solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow (Choice A) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure (Choice C) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (Choice D) is not the initial action indicated for cramping; adjusting the height is the more appropriate intervention.

3. What is the first-line treatment for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it acts quickly to open the airways by relaxing the muscles in the air passages. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for asthma prevention rather than acute wheezing. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in the setting of an allergic reaction.

4. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves on ECG
B. Prominent U waves on ECG
C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
D. ST elevation on ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

A. Stomatitis
B. Fatigue
C. Wasting syndrome
D. Lipodystrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.