Nursing Elites

1. What is the first action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Get IV access
• C. Auscultate heart sounds
• D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the initial priority action for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps in relieving symptoms and preventing further damage to the heart. Establishing IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome but are not the first actions to be taken. IV access may be needed for administering medications or fluids, auscultating heart sounds helps in assessing the heart's function, and obtaining cardiac enzymes aids in diagnosing a heart attack.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

3. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.

4. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Clamp the chest tube
• C. Replace the chest tube system
• D. Continue monitoring the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the correct intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This can help resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the entire chest tube system are not appropriate interventions in this scenario. Clamping the tube can lead to a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the chest tube system may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by simply tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications associated with the air leak.

5. During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, what is the purpose of this procedure?

• A. To release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area
• B. To remove dead tissue from the burn area
• C. To improve breathing by reducing skin tightness
• D. To prevent infection in the burned area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, the purpose of this procedure is to release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area. This intervention is crucial in severe burns where the formation of eschar (dead tissue) can lead to increased pressure, compromising circulation and potentially causing further tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because escharotomy specifically aims to address pressure and circulation issues in severe burn injuries, rather than removing dead tissue, improving breathing, or preventing infection.

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