what is the priority action if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What is the priority action if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the solution container
B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During enema administration, if a patient experiences abdominal cramping, the priority action is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help relieve abdominal cramping by reducing the flow rate of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases of severe discomfort or complications, but adjusting the height of the solution container should be the initial response. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not address the immediate need to alleviate the cramping.

2. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
B. Monitor the client's skin under the halo vest
C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
D. Apply powder to the client's skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

3. What are the common manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Sudden loss of consciousness
C. Severe headache and confusion
D. Seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. A thrombotic stroke is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms due to interrupted blood flow in the brain. This interruption results in manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache, confusion, seizures, and convulsions are more commonly associated with conditions other than thrombotic strokes.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Consume high-calorie foods
C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
D. Drink fluids during meal time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.

5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Prominent U waves on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.