what should a nurse monitor for in a patient with hiv and a cd4 t cell count below 180 cellsmm3 what should a nurse monitor for in a patient with hiv and a cd4 t cell count below 180 cellsmm3
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

2. By what age does birth weight usually triple?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 year. By the age of 1 year, a baby’s birth weight typically triples. This period allows for significant growth and development in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because birth weight does not usually triple by 1 month, 2 years, or 6 months of age, respectively.

3. A client comes to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is sharp, knife-like, and localized to an area he points to with one finger. The nurse should document this chest pain as which of the following?

Correct answer: Pleuritic pain

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pleuritic pain.' Pleuritic pain is characterized by sharp, knife-like pain that worsens with deep breathing or coughing and is localized to a specific area. This type of pain is often associated with inflammation of the pleura. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Angina pectoris is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Cardiogenic pain refers to pain originating from the heart itself. Myocardial infarction is the medical term for a heart attack.

4. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.

5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is that the client may experience a decreased desire for intimacy while taking Fluoxetine for PTS. This is important because Fluoxetine, an SSRI used to treat PTS, can lead to decreased libido as a potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with Fluoxetine and are not directly relevant to the medication's effects for this patient.

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