what should a nurse monitor for in a patient with hiv and a cd4 t cell count below 180 cellsmm3

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

A. Monitor for signs of infection
B. Monitor for anemia
C. Monitor for dehydration
D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

2. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Elevated ST segments
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.

4. When providing discharge teaching to a patient who underwent cataract surgery, what should the patient avoid?

A. Avoid NSAIDs
B. Avoid bright lights
C. Avoid alcohol
D. Avoid phosphorus-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid NSAIDs. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can increase the risk of bleeding after cataract surgery due to their anticoagulant properties. Bright lights (choice B) are not contraindicated post-cataract surgery unless the patient experiences discomfort or sensitivity. Alcohol consumption (choice C) is generally not restricted after cataract surgery, but moderation is recommended. Phosphorus-rich foods (choice D) are not directly related to cataract surgery postoperative care.

5. What are the signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke?

A. Sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures
B. Loss of consciousness and weakness
C. Temporary vision loss
D. Severe chest pain and shortness of breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemorrhagic stroke often presents with a sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures due to bleeding in the brain. Choice B, loss of consciousness and weakness, is more indicative of an ischemic stroke where a clot blocks blood flow to the brain. Choice C, temporary vision loss, is more commonly seen in conditions like transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or retinal migraines. Choice D, severe chest pain and shortness of breath, are symptoms more associated with cardiac issues like a heart attack.