ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on ECG
- B. Prominent U waves on ECG
- C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
- D. ST elevation on ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. The dressing was changed 7 days ago
- B. The circumference of the client's upper arm has increased by 10%
- C. The catheter has not been used in 8 hours
- D. The catheter has been flushed with 10 mL of sterile saline after medication use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.
3. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?
- A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
- B. Monitor for increased thirst
- C. Monitor serum albumin levels
- D. Monitor blood pressure closely
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.
4. When caring for a patient with a burn injury, what is the priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the burn area for infection
- B. Administer IV fluids
- C. Debride the burn area
- D. Apply a dry dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention when caring for a patient with a burn injury is to monitor the burn area for infection. This is crucial to prevent further complications such as sepsis. While administering IV fluids is important for fluid resuscitation, it is not the top priority compared to preventing infection. Debriding the burn area and applying a dry dressing are necessary interventions for wound care, but ensuring there is no infection takes precedence to avoid sepsis and other serious complications.
5. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.
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