ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What should the nurse do when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
- D. Increase the flow of the enema solution
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the height helps relieve cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it does not directly address the cramping issue. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, could potentially worsen the cramping by prolonging the discomfort. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, is also incorrect as it may intensify the cramping and cause more discomfort to the patient.
2. What is the first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- C. Start IV fluids
- D. Monitor for chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a patient admitted with unstable angina is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps to relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart, thereby reducing cardiac workload. This intervention aims to alleviate symptoms and prevent further cardiac damage. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (Choice B) is important for diagnosing a myocardial infarction but is not the initial intervention for unstable angina. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) may be indicated in specific cases like hypovolemia but is not the primary intervention for unstable angina. Monitoring for chest pain (Choice D) is essential but taking action to alleviate the pain, like administering nitroglycerin, is the primary focus in the initial management of unstable angina.
3. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Monitor for anemia
- C. Monitor for dehydration
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
4. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?
- A. I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I'll look for a league.
- B. I'm glad I'll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can't wait to get back to running.
- C. I'm so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this?
- D. I feel like I'll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.
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