Nursing Elites

1. What is the process of moving air into the lungs with subsequent distribution to the alveoli called?

• A. Ventilation
• B. Aeration
• C. Enclosure vapor
• D. Residual volume

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ventilation. Ventilation is the process of moving air into the lungs and distributing it to the alveoli for gas exchange. Choice B, Aeration, is not the correct term for this specific process. Choice C, Enclosure vapor, is not related to the movement of air into the lungs. Choice D, Residual volume, refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration and is not the process of moving air into the lungs.

2. Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) often causes which of the following?

• A. Colon cancer
• B. Hiatal hernia
• C. Peptic ulcer disease
• D. Esophageal varices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium known to cause peptic ulcer disease by weakening the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum, leading to inflammation and ulcers. While chronic H. pylori infection is a risk factor for stomach cancer, it is not directly linked to colon cancer (Choice A), hiatal hernia (Choice B), or esophageal varices (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.

3. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.

5. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?

• A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• B. Oprelvekin (Neumega)
• C. Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen)
• D. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.

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