Nursing Elites

1. What is the process of moving air into the lungs with subsequent distribution to the alveoli called?

• A. Ventilation
• B. Aeration
• C. Enclosure vapor
• D. Residual volume

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ventilation. Ventilation is the process of moving air into the lungs and distributing it to the alveoli for gas exchange. Choice B, Aeration, is not the correct term for this specific process. Choice C, Enclosure vapor, is not related to the movement of air into the lungs. Choice D, Residual volume, refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration and is not the process of moving air into the lungs.

2. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• C. Increased risk of bone fractures
• D. Increased risk of breast cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.

3. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

• A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
• B. negative for estrogen receptor.
• C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
• D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

4. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?

• A. Reversible with cognitive therapy in infancy
• B. Transient and resolves in adulthood through physical therapy
• C. Manifests in adulthood after regular childhood activities
• D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.

5. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

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