Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
• B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
• C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

• A. They improve treatment adherence.
• B. They reduce the duration of illness.
• C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
• D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

3. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

4. A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with alcohol to reduce the risk of liver damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking it at night aligns with the body's natural rhythm of cholesterol production, optimizing its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can increase the risk of side effects by affecting the metabolism of atorvastatin. Choice C is incorrect as taking atorvastatin in the morning does not maximize its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol consumption can increase the risk of liver damage when combined with atorvastatin.

5. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

• A. Destruction of proteoglycans
• B. Underexcretion of uric acid
• C. Overexcretion of uric acid
• D. Increased absorption of uric acid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. In gouty arthritis, the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the affected joint is caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to the accumulation and subsequent crystallization of urate crystals. Choice A, destruction of proteoglycans, is incorrect as it is not directly related to the crystallization process in gouty arthritis. Choice C, overexcretion of uric acid, is incorrect because gout is primarily associated with underexcretion or decreased excretion of uric acid rather than overexcretion. Choice D, increased absorption of uric acid, is also incorrect as the primary issue in gouty arthritis is the body's inability to properly eliminate uric acid.

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