ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
2. A client with a pulmonary embolism is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- B. Place the client in a prone position.
- C. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is a crucial intervention for clients with pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may dislodge the clot and lead to worsening symptoms. Placing the client in a prone position can compromise respiratory function. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to the management of pulmonary embolism.
3. A patient is assessing a client who has just been admitted to the emergency department. The client is having difficulty breathing and is using accessory muscles. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- B. Assess the client's vital signs including oxygen saturation.
- C. Notify the Rapid Response Team immediately.
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the best action in this situation as it helps to maximize lung expansion, improve breathing, and decrease the work of breathing. This position allows for better chest expansion, improving oxygenation and ventilation for the client in respiratory distress.
4. The client with cirrhosis has ascites and excess fluid volume. Which measure will the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?
- A. Increase the amount of sodium in the diet.
- B. Limit the amount of fluids consumed.
- C. Encourage frequent ambulation.
- D. Administer magnesium antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Excess fluid volume, related to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal and dependent areas of the body, can occur in the client with cirrhosis. Fluids should be restricted, including fluids given in medications and meals. Sodium restriction also aids in reducing fluid volume excess.
5. Sitty, a 66 y.o. patient underwent a colostomy for ruptured diverticulum. She did well during the surgery and returned to your med-surg floor in stable condition. You assess her colostomy 2 days after surgery. Which finding do you report to the doctor?
- A. Blanched stoma
- B. Edematous stoma
- C. Reddish-pink stoma
- D. Brownish-black stoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A blanched stoma 2 days after colostomy surgery should be reported to the doctor as it may indicate compromised blood flow.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99