ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
2. A 30-year-old man has a history of heart transplant and is receiving long-term steroids to prevent rejection. The patient is due for routine vaccines. Attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in this patient because the antigen is:
- A. live and can cause infection.
- B. mutated and infectious.
- C. inactive but still infectious
- D. pathogenic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: live and can cause infection. Patients who are immunocompromised, like those receiving long-term steroids after an organ transplant, should not receive live vaccines because the live attenuated organisms in these vaccines can cause infections in individuals with weakened immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because attenuated vaccines are live but weakened, not mutated. Choice C is incorrect because while inactive, attenuated vaccines are not infectious. Choice D is incorrect because attenuated vaccines are not pathogenic; they are attenuated (weakened) forms of the pathogen.
3. When educating a client about to undergo a pacemaker insertion, the nurse explains the normal phases of cardiac muscle tissue. During the repolarization phase, the nurse will stress that membranes must be repolarized before they can be re-excited. Within the cell, the nurse understands that:
- A. Potassium channels open while sodium channels close, causing repolarization to the resting state.
- B. The influx of calcium is the primary stimulus for the repolarization of cardiac tissue.
- C. Only the electrical activity within the heart will determine when repolarization occurs.
- D. The cell membranes need to stay calm, resulting in muscle tissue becoming refractory.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the repolarization phase of cardiac muscle tissue, potassium channels open while sodium channels close. This process is crucial for the cardiac muscle to return to its resting state after depolarization. Potassium moving out of the cell and sodium staying out helps reset the membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next depolarization phase. The influx of calcium is not the primary stimulus for repolarization in cardiac tissue; it is mainly involved in the depolarization phase. While electrical activity within the heart influences repolarization, the specific ion movements described in choice A are what physiologically drive repolarization. Cell membranes need to be in an active state during repolarization, not calm, to facilitate the necessary ion movements for muscle tissue to properly function.
4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes
- B. Mumps
- C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
- D. Testicular trauma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.
5. The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease include:
- A. constipation with gastric distension.
- B. bradycardia and bradypnea.
- C. hyperthermia and tachycardia.
- D. constipation and lethargy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thyroid crisis in Graves' disease typically presents with hyperthermia (high body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are a result of excessive thyroid hormone production and can lead to life-threatening complications if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation with gastric distension, bradycardia and bradypnea, and constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.
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