ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
2. Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
- B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
- C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
- D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.
3. A nurse is administering testosterone to a patient with hypogonadism. What outcome indicates that the treatment is having the desired effect?
- A. Increased libido
- B. Increased muscle mass
- C. Improved secondary sexual characteristics
- D. Decreased sperm count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Improved secondary sexual characteristics.' Testosterone therapy in patients with hypogonadism typically leads to improved secondary sexual characteristics, which include increased muscle mass and libido. While increased libido (choice A) and increased muscle mass (choice B) are effects of testosterone therapy, they are more specific outcomes related to secondary sexual characteristics. Decreased sperm count (choice D) would not be an expected outcome of testosterone therapy for hypogonadism, as testosterone is essential for sperm production.
4. A 22-year-old woman began using oral contraceptives several months ago and has presented for an appointment to discuss recent worrisome changes in her health status. Which of the following changes in the woman's health may the nurse potentially attribute to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Frequent high blood pressure readings
- C. Frequent headaches without aura
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fatigue. Oral contraceptives can sometimes cause fatigue as a side effect. Frequent high blood pressure readings and frequent headaches without aura are less likely to be directly related to the use of oral contraceptives. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of oral contraceptives but are not the changes typically associated with liver function affecting hormone metabolism as in the case of hepatitis C infection.
5. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?
- A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
- B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
- C. Changes in speech and reasoning
- D. Increased intracranial pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.
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