Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

2. A patient with a diagnosis of renal failure is being treated with epoetin alfa (Epogen). Frequent assessment of which of the following laboratory values should be prioritized before and during treatment?

• A. AST
• B. C-reactive protein
• C. CBC
• D. ALT

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is AST. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure. During treatment with epoetin alfa, it is crucial to monitor AST levels as this medication can potentially lead to liver toxicity. Assessing AST levels before and throughout treatment helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. C-reactive protein is not specifically related to the use of epoetin alfa in renal failure. While CBC (Complete Blood Count) monitoring is essential during treatment with epoetin alfa to evaluate the response to therapy, prioritizing AST assessment is more critical due to the potential for liver toxicity. ALT monitoring is also important but AST is prioritized in this scenario.

3. A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking NSAIDs while on this medication.
• C. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
• D. Women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.

4. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Increased risk of breast cancer
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with an altered level of consciousness and needs to assess the withdrawal reflex. Which action should the healthcare provider perform?

• A. Apply a painful stimulus to see if the client pulls away.
• B. Check for pupil response to light.
• C. Assess the client's response to verbal commands.
• D. Observe the client's reaction to a cold stimulus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is assessed by applying a painful stimulus and observing if the client pulls away. This response indicates a functioning reflex arc. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve testing the withdrawal reflex specifically. Checking for pupil response to light assesses the pupillary reflex, assessing the client's response to verbal commands evaluates their cognitive function, and observing the client's reaction to a cold stimulus tests for a different type of sensory response.

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