ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?
- A. Seizures
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Edema
- D. Serotonin syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.
2. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
- C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
4. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of tendon dysfunction?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Niacin
- C. Tetracycline
- D. Fluoroquinolones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones are known to be associated with tendon dysfunction or rupture. These drugs can weaken the tendons, leading to potential issues such as tendonitis or even tendon rupture. It is essential for healthcare providers to be cautious when prescribing fluoroquinolones, especially in patients who may be at higher risk for tendon-related complications.
5. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. It is used to treat skin infections.
- B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
- C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
- D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
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