Nursing Elites

1. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?

• A. Seizures
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Edema
• D. Serotonin syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Ondansetron
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Promethazine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.

3. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid drinking coffee while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Stop the medication if you develop a headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at bedtime as it helps decrease the production of stomach acid during the night, providing optimal relief for conditions like heartburn or acid indigestion.

4. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.

5. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.

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