Nursing Elites

1. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?

• A. Seizures
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Edema
• D. Serotonin syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.

2. What classification of drug is Penicillin?

• A. Antiarrhythmic
• B. Anticonvulsant
• C. Antibacterial
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penicillin is classified as an antibacterial drug, specifically used to treat bacterial infections. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria, making it an effective treatment for various bacterial infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Penicillin does not belong to these drug classifications. Penicillin does not have any direct effect on heart rhythm (antiarrhythmic), does not treat seizures (anticonvulsant), and is not used to stabilize mood (mood stabilizer).

3. A client with a UTI and a history of recurrent infections asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following laboratory tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe?

• A. Gram stain
• B. Culture
• C. Sensitivity
• D. Specific gravity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of a UTI, a sensitivity test is crucial as it identifies the most effective antibiotic to target the specific microorganism causing the infection. This test helps in prescribing the appropriate antibiotic for successful treatment and preventing antibiotic resistance. While a Gram stain and culture are important in diagnosing a UTI, the sensitivity test specifically determines the most suitable antibiotic. Specific gravity, on the other hand, is not related to identifying the appropriate antibiotic for a UTI.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

5. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.

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