Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic angina. Treatment for the condition has been unsuccessful. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Sildenafil (Viagra)
• D. Ranolazine (Ranexa)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of chronic angina where initial treatment has not been successful, Ranolazine (Ranexa) is often prescribed. This medication helps by reducing the frequency of angina episodes. Atenolol, Nitroglycerin, and Sildenafil are also used in angina management but Ranolazine is more specifically indicated in cases of refractory angina where other treatments have failed.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This situation can result in increased drug levels in the body, causing drowsiness and other side effects. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary to prevent such adverse effects in older adult clients. Choice A, reduced cardiac function, is not directly related to the metabolism of the medication and is unlikely to cause drowsiness. Choice B, first-pass effect, refers to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before it enters circulation, but it is not the cause of drowsiness in this scenario. Choice D, increased gastric motility, does not play a significant role in the metabolism of the medication and is not a likely cause of the client's drowsiness.

3. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Administer half of the normal dose
• C. Consider the extended-release form of the medication
• D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.

4. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will reduce my sodium intake.
• B. I should increase my water intake.
• C. I will notify my doctor if I develop chest pain.
• D. I should take this medication with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.

5. A client is starting therapy with bicalutamide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is gynecomastia (Choice C). Bicalutamide is associated with gynecomastia due to its antiandrogenic properties. Gynecomastia, the development of breast tissue in males, is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking bicalutamide. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

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